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When alpha floor protection is triggered it automatically commands TOGA thrust on both engines, regardless of the position of the thrust levers.

Correct! Wrong!

Alpha Floor Protection is available from lift-off until the aircraft reaches 100 feet RA on the approach to landing.

SRS provides the correct pitch attitude for:

Correct! Wrong!

VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system will fly the aircraft and is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). What else is true about VLS?

Correct! Wrong!

What is the main SRS (Speed Reference System) purpose?

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS mode controls pitch to steer the aircraft along a path in the vertical plan at a speed defined by the SRS guidance law. In SRS mode, the aircraft maintains a speed target equal to V2+10 kt in normal engine configuration. When the FMGS detects an engine failure, the speed target becomes the highest of V2 or current speed, limited by V2+15 kt.

The DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator) provides the flight crew with:

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to ATHR if the thrust levers are moved to idle?

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS mode engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent, providing:

Correct! Wrong!

What is the roll mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

Correct! Wrong!

What action should be taken if IR 2 is lost?

Correct! Wrong!

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode automatically disengages at EO ACC ALT.

Correct! Wrong!

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode does NOT automatically disengage at EO ACC ALT.

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The flight directors are removed automatically when the pitch exceeds:

Correct! Wrong!

A THR in white means that A THR is:

Correct! Wrong!

If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

Correct! Wrong!

With the ATHR Active, the actual thrust is primarily limited by:

Correct! Wrong!

During the takeoff phase:

Correct! Wrong!

The engagement of both autopilots is possible.

Correct! Wrong!

The RWY mode is a managed lateral mode. When a LOC, VOR or SLS signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff only.

Correct! Wrong!

Only when a LOC signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff, AND initial climb. The RWY guidance law aims to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline during the takeoff run. When the aircraft is airborne, the RWY guidance law aims to maintain the sideslip indicator centered. To follow the guidance, the FD displays the conventional guidance bar.

If the autothrust has failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Correct! Wrong!

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

Correct! Wrong!

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After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?

Correct! Wrong!

What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

Correct! Wrong!

What happens when the autothrust system fails?

Correct! Wrong!

What navigation display (ND) setting is automatically displayed when both channels of the FCU are lost?

Correct! Wrong!

In approach with FINAL APP, VS or FPA mode, the autopilot can be used until:

Correct! Wrong!

The A/THR is active when it controls thrust or speed. The position of the thrust lever determines the maximum thrust that the A/THR system can command (except in alpha floor condition).

Correct! Wrong!

What is the pitch mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

Correct! Wrong!

What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

Correct! Wrong!

Normally FMGC1 is the source for the left side and FMGC2 for the right side. If both FMGCs are functional and FDs are on then 1FD2 should be displayed. If one FMGC fails then the other one becomes the source for both FDs: if FMGC1 is inoperative then the display would be 2FD2 which means FMGC2 is the source for both FDs. If right FD is switched off then the display would be 2FD-

What happens to the IAS Bug if FDs and APs are switched OFF?

Correct! Wrong!

What input on the PERF APPROACH page on the FMGC is required for ground speed mini to operate?

Correct! Wrong!

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With the loss of ILS data (GS, LOC, LAND, etc.) how long do the flight directors flash for?

Correct! Wrong!

What is Displayed in the top center of the ND?

Correct! Wrong!

What does -FD2 on the PFD mean?

Correct! Wrong!

When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?

Correct! Wrong!

What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

Correct! Wrong!

If accuracy is "LOW" (and whenever "NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD" appears), the flight crew should compare raw data from the tuned navaids with the corresponding FM computed data on the ND or the MCDU PROG page

The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.

Correct! Wrong!

When is Windshear Protection available, when is it triggered?

Correct! Wrong!

During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the "Ground Speed Mini". The lowest speed target is limited to:

Correct! Wrong!

Ground speed mini concept has been defined to prevent the aircraft energy from dropping below a minimum level during final approach. The GS mini value is not displayed to the flight crew.

The autothrust is a function of the:

Correct! Wrong!

At what point after a manual go-around can the autopilot be engaged?

Correct! Wrong!

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What does 2FD2 on the PFD mean?

Correct! Wrong!

The ground speed mini function works in both managed and selected speed modes.

Correct! Wrong!

The Ground Speed Mini function is active when the speed is managed and the FMS flight phase is the approach phase.

What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

Correct! Wrong!

How can be defined a GA TRK?

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors are removed automatically when the bank angle exceeds:

Correct! Wrong!

What is the effect of activating the Approach Phase on the MCDU?

Correct! Wrong!

What action should be taken if ADR 1 is lost?

Correct! Wrong!

The thrust delivered by A THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

Correct! Wrong!

If hand flown to VLS or VMAX with the autothrust engaged, which mode will it automatically revert to?

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum speed selectable on the FCU?

Correct! Wrong!

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What is the maximum VS selectable on the FCU?

Correct! Wrong!

When the FCU is in Managed mode, how long will a selection in HDG-TRK or VS (without pulling) stay on the FCU before it disappears?

Correct! Wrong!

VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the managed speed target will still be computed.

Correct! Wrong!

The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:

Correct! Wrong!

When the flaps are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

Correct! Wrong!

When the SLATS are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

FMA Green annunciation - APP NAV and FINAL modes are engaged during a non precision approach.

Correct! Wrong!

The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?

Correct! Wrong!

What happens if the THR LVR ATHR buttons are pushed for more than 15 seconds?

Correct! Wrong!

In HDG TRK mode, a flight plan waypoint is sequenced if the waypoint is behind the aircraft and the aircraft is less than 7 NM from it, if the angle between the current aircraft track and the track of the leg is less than 90 degrees, and if the aircraft is flying a discontinuity towards a waypoint. This waypoint is sequenced when the aircraft is less than _____ from it.

Correct! Wrong!

The same conditions apply in NAV mode, except that no distance to the waypoint is taken into account.

In the CLB detent, with ATHR on, what happens if the thrust levers are moved forward of the CLB detent?

Correct! Wrong!

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What happens to the RA Indication during a low visibility Approach with DH 50?

Correct! Wrong!

Which baro altimeters are considered usable when both channels of the FCU are lost?

Correct! Wrong!

What does a Temporary white Box indicate on an FMA?

Correct! Wrong!

What happens on the PFD Altitude Tape when the Aircraft descends below MDA?

Correct! Wrong!

At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?

Correct! Wrong!

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum FPA selectable on the FCU?

Correct! Wrong!

If during takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an altitude on the FCU below the current altitude, the aircraft will remain in SRS mode until the flight crew takes some other action.

Correct! Wrong!

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

Correct! Wrong!

At what point can the autopilot be used until on a CAT1 ILS approach?

Correct! Wrong!

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When is the autopilot first available for use after takeoff?

Correct! Wrong!

If the ATHR is switched off on the Instinctive disconnect pb:

Correct! Wrong!

What will happen if V2 is not inserted into the PERF TAKEOFF page?

Correct! Wrong!

If the autothrust has not failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Correct! Wrong!

The FMA displays the DECELERATE special message. What does it mean?

Correct! Wrong!

How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors automatically reappear when the bank angle becomes less than:

Correct! Wrong!

When the aircraft overflies a flight plan discontinuity, the NAV mode automatically reverts to the HDG TRK mode.

Correct! Wrong!

Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

Correct! Wrong!

The FMA displays the CHECK SPEED MODE special message. What does it mean?

Correct! Wrong!

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When the A/THR is armed the FCU’s A/THR pb light comes on and A/THR is displayed in white on the FMA.

Correct! Wrong!

A/THR is displayed in blue on the FMA (not in white).

SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.

Correct! Wrong!

FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

Correct! Wrong!

A white box is displayed for 10 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 15 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

On ground the flight crew arms A/THR by pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the engines are not running, or by setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.

Correct! Wrong!

With the A/THR engaged, it is possible to achieve more thrust than MAX CLB thrust.

Correct! Wrong!

Losing both channels of the FCU will result in losing:

Correct! Wrong!

When does "LAND" appear on the FMA?

Correct! Wrong!

In which case are AP, FD, A/THR and Autoland capabilities lost?

Correct! Wrong!

How long does a normal IR alignment take?

Correct! Wrong!

Fast alignment is used to refine a position when time is limited. A fast alignment takes approximately 30 seconds.

If the A/THR disconnect switches are held for more than 15 seconds, the A/THR is disconnected for the reminder of the flight (this includes alpha floor).

Correct! Wrong!

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A Managed Descent in a Holding Pattern gives what rate of descent?

Correct! Wrong!

What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

Correct! Wrong!

The FMGS synchronizes A/THR mode, AP/FD modes and approach capability to provide identical information on both PFDs.

Correct! Wrong!

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

Correct! Wrong!

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?

Correct! Wrong!

In the Armed mode, the actual thrust is equal to:

Correct! Wrong!

If the VAPP computed by the FMS is not available, the VAPP is:

Correct! Wrong!

How can the FMGC be used to exit a holding pattern?

Correct! Wrong!

An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition, or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. What approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system?

Correct! Wrong!

When is ALPHA FLOOR available?

Correct! Wrong!

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Regarding metric altitudes, which of the following statements is true?

Correct! Wrong!

What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFDs?

Correct! Wrong!

How many Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed?

Correct! Wrong!

When is the Yaw bar displayed?

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.

Correct! Wrong!

There is a pitch angle protection to reduce the aircraft nose-up: 18 degrees (A319 and A320) – 15 degrees (A321) of maximum pitch attitude or 22.5 degrees maximum in case of windshear).

When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?

Correct! Wrong!

The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform:

Correct! Wrong!

If a failure is detected on any channel of FAC1, FAC2 takes over the corresponding channel.

On the ground with both flight directors engaged, when will the autothrust arm?

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed possible with ATHR ON?

Correct! Wrong!

An automatic landing system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the remaining part of the automatic landing system allows the aircraft to complete the approach, flare, and landing.

Correct! Wrong!

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The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:

Correct! Wrong!

The "ON BAT" light will illuminate amber:

Correct! Wrong!

What information is supplied by the IRs and displayed on the PFD?

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed selectable on the FCU?

Correct! Wrong!

At what point can the autopilot be used until on an approach using FINAL APP?

Correct! Wrong!

What causes the flight directors to flash on the PFD?

Correct! Wrong!

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range:

Correct! Wrong!

Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight