Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight - SmartCockpit - Airline training guides, Aviation, Operations, Safety

At what point can the autopilot be used until on an approach using FINAL APP?

250 ft.

500 ft.

100 ft.

160 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

What navigation display (ND) setting is automatically displayed when both channels of the FCU are lost?

ROSE NAV 80 NM.

ARC 80 NM.

The current display setting at the time of the failure.

ARC 160 NM.

Correct! Wrong!

What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

FMGC position and actual radio position difference exceeds limits.

FMGC 1 and 2 position difference exceeds limits.

FMGC position and IR position difference exceeds limits.

Correct! Wrong!

If accuracy is "LOW" (and whenever "NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD" appears), the flight crew should compare raw data from the tuned navaids with the corresponding FM computed data on the ND or the MCDU PROG page

An automatic landing system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the remaining part of the automatic landing system allows the aircraft to complete the approach, flare, and landing.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

The "ON BAT" light will illuminate amber:

Both statements are correct.

When one or more IRs are operating on aircraft battery power.

For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.

Correct! Wrong!

How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU.

Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.

Both statements are correct.

Correct! Wrong!

VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the managed speed target will still be computed.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

The thrust delivered by A THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

No, because the A THR already delivers the maximum available thrust.

Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.

Yes, by setting a higher speed target.

Correct! Wrong!

With the A/THR engaged, it is possible to achieve more thrust than MAX CLB thrust.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

During the takeoff phase:

SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference.

SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected.

SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

ALPHA SPD (alpha speed)

Pitch attitude.

Alpha floor.

VLS.

Correct! Wrong!

What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

An AC power failure.

A DMC failure.

The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped out.

No power.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point can the autopilot be used until on a CAT1 ILS approach?

160 ft.

500 ft.

100 ft.

250 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

When is the autopilot first available for use after takeoff?

At or above 400ft AGL.

At or above 100ft AGL and after 5 seconds.

At or above 240ft AGL.

At or above 150ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens if the THR LVR ATHR buttons are pushed for more than 15 seconds?

ATHR is lost for the reminder of the flight.

Manual thrust mode is engaged.

ATHR is lost for the reminder of the flight along with any ATHR associated protections.

ATHR disconnects.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point after a manual go-around can the autopilot be engaged?

Above 100 ft AGL.

Above 250 ft AGL.

Above 160 ft AGL.

Above 300 ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform:

Three main functions - Yaw function, flight envelope function, and low energy aural alert function.

Two main functions - Yaw function and flight envelope function.

Four main functions - Yaw function, flight envelope function, low energy aural alert function and windshear detection function.

Correct! Wrong!

If a failure is detected on any channel of FAC1, FAC2 takes over the corresponding channel.

The DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator) provides the flight crew with:

Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.

Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.

Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.

Bearing only for VOR 1.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the main SRS (Speed Reference System) purpose?

It provides instructions to the flight director computers.

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+5 (2 engines) or V2 maximum (1 engine).

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+15 (2 engines) or V2 maximum (1 engine).

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+10 (2 engines) or V2+15 maximum (1 engine).

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS mode controls pitch to steer the aircraft along a path in the vertical plan at a speed defined by the SRS guidance law. In SRS mode, the aircraft maintains a speed target equal to V2+10 kt in normal engine configuration. When the FMGS detects an engine failure, the speed target becomes the highest of V2 or current speed, limited by V2+15 kt.

When the aircraft overflies a flight plan discontinuity, the NAV mode automatically reverts to the HDG TRK mode.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

How can the FMGC be used to exit a holding pattern?

Hold will automatically cancel overflying the fix.

Using the CLR EXIT prompt.

Activate the HOLD EXIT prompt.

Activate the IMM EXIT prompt.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?

At first engine start.

When DC power is connected.

When AC power is connected.

At FMGC system power up.

Correct! Wrong!

What action should be taken if ADR 1 is lost?

Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Nothing.

Correct! Wrong!

The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:

AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation.

Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands

Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.

Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions

Correct! Wrong!

FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

A white box is displayed for 10 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 15 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

If hand flown to VLS or VMAX with the autothrust engaged, which mode will it automatically revert to?

MAN TOGA.

THR CLB.

THR LK.

SPEED.

Correct! Wrong!

The A/THR is active when it controls thrust or speed. The position of the thrust lever determines the maximum thrust that the A/THR system can command (except in alpha floor condition).

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

What is Displayed in the top center of the ND?

The runway of the selected approach in the MCDU.

The active approach.

HDG Indication.

Active Nav Aids.

Correct! Wrong!

Which baro altimeters are considered usable when both channels of the FCU are lost?

The standby altimeter only.

None of the baro references.

The PFD and standby altimeters

The PFD altimeters only.

Correct! Wrong!

During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the "Ground Speed Mini". The lowest speed target is limited to:

VAPP+7 and its upper limit is VFE-5 of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-3 in CONF FULL.

VAPP+ 5 kt and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration.

VAPP and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-5 in CONF FULL.

Correct! Wrong!

Ground speed mini concept has been defined to prevent the aircraft energy from dropping below a minimum level during final approach. The GS mini value is not displayed to the flight crew.

What is the pitch mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

OPN CLB.

CLB.

VS.

ALT.

Correct! Wrong!

What does -FD2 on the PFD mean?

1 is off, 2 is engaged.

1 is the slave, 2 is the master.

1 is the master, 2 is the slave.

1 is inoperative, 2 is engaged.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to ATHR if the thrust levers are moved to idle?

ATHR demands IDLE Thrust.

AP Disconnects.

LEVER CLB appears on the PFD reminding the pilots of an incorrect THR LVR position.

ATHR Disconnects.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed selectable on the FCU?

100 kt.

0 kt.

Alpha Prot.

VLS.

Correct! Wrong!

FMA Green annunciation - APP NAV and FINAL modes are engaged during a non precision approach.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop

1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.

Correct! Wrong!

Normally FMGC1 is the source for the left side and FMGC2 for the right side. If both FMGCs are functional and FDs are on then 1FD2 should be displayed. If one FMGC fails then the other one becomes the source for both FDs: if FMGC1 is inoperative then the display would be 2FD2 which means FMGC2 is the source for both FDs. If right FD is switched off then the display would be 2FD-

When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?

10ft, 30ft.

10ft, 40ft.

10ft, 20ft.

20ft, 10ft.

Correct! Wrong!

In which case are AP, FD, A/THR and Autoland capabilities lost?

2 IRS or ADC (Air Data Computer) failures.

1 ADC (Air data Computer) failure.

2 RA (Radio Altimeters) failures.

2 FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer) failures.

Correct! Wrong!

What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFDs?

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.

Correct! Wrong!

What does a Temporary white Box indicate on an FMA?

Mode reversion.

Armed mode.

Aircraft cannot meet the requirements of that mode.

Recently changed mode.

Correct! Wrong!

What does 2FD2 on the PFD mean?

1 is the slave, 2 is the master.

1 is the master, 2 is the slave.

1 is off, 2 is engaged.

1 is inoperative, 2 is engaged.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the roll mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

HDG.

NAV.

RWY.

NAV or TRK.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens on the PFD Altitude Tape when the Aircraft descends below MDA?

Altitude box flashes.

Altitude numbers turn amber.

Altitude box turns amber.

Altitude numbers turn red.

Correct! Wrong!

What action should be taken if IR 2 is lost?

Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

Correct! Wrong!

What will happen if V2 is not inserted into the PERF TAKEOFF page?

No FMA will display in column 2.

SRS will still engage when FLEX/TOGA is selected.

VS mode engages 5 seconds after lift-off.

The aircraft will target the speed achieved at lift off.

Correct! Wrong!

SRS provides the correct pitch attitude for:

The best combination of rate of climb and desired airspeed.

The desired airspeed.

The desired rate of climb.

The desired climb speed.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to the IAS Bug if FDs and APs are switched OFF?

Nothing.

All bugs are lost.

Remains in Managed Mode (Magenta) in case managed mode is engaged again.

Reverts to Selected Mode (Blue).

Correct! Wrong!

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

Present position needs to be reentered.

Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.

A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.

Correct! Wrong!

When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?

7 seconds.

10 seconds.

12 seconds.

5 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard.

The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.

The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.

Correct! Wrong!

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?

FUEL PRED page.

TAKE OFF PERF page.

PROG page.

INIT A page.

Correct! Wrong!

The ground speed mini function works in both managed and selected speed modes.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

The Ground Speed Mini function is active when the speed is managed and the FMS flight phase is the approach phase.

The FMA displays the CHECK SPEED MODE special message. What does it mean?

The SPEED target is selected and the flight crew did not enter a speed target in the PERF CLB page, or a speed-Mach target in the PERF DES page.

The SPEED target, as selected, is invalid or the flight crew did not enter any speed target in the PERF CLB page.

The speed target is not selected.

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

There is a pitch angle protection to reduce the aircraft nose-up: 18 degrees (A319 and A320) – 15 degrees (A321) of maximum pitch attitude or 22.5 degrees maximum in case of windshear).

SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

Check Data Base Cycle.

Check Data Base Date.

Check Effective Date.

Check Changeover date.

Correct! Wrong!

A THR in white means that A THR is:

Disconnected.

Armed.

Active.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to the RA Indication during a low visibility Approach with DH 50?

It flashes amber.

It turns green.

It turns amber.

It flashes green.

Correct! Wrong!

When does "LAND" appear on the FMA?

LOC and G/S Arm less than 400 RA.

LOC Arm.

LOC and G/S Arm.

GS Arm less than 400 RA.

Correct! Wrong!

In approach with FINAL APP, VS or FPA mode, the autopilot can be used until:

250 ft AGL.

200 ft AGL.

180 ft AGL.

300 ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

If the autothrust has failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU.

Engaging the other autopilot.

Pressing the autothrust disconnect pb.

Moving the trust lever to achieve a different N1.

Correct! Wrong!

VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system will fly the aircraft and is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). What else is true about VLS?

With speedbrake extension, VLS will increase.

Above FL200, VLS will provide a 0.2g buffet margin.

All statements are correct.

VLS will change with wing configuration change.

Correct! Wrong!

How many Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed?

Two.

Four.

One.

Three.

Correct! Wrong!

The engagement of both autopilots is possible.

When LAND mode engages.

When LOC and GS modes are armed.

At all times.

When the Approach Phase is activated.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum speed selectable on the FCU?

450 kt.

399 kt.

500 kt.

499 kt.

Correct! Wrong!

When is the Yaw bar displayed?

On the ground.

On the ground, or below 30 ft RA.

Below 30 ft RA.

On the ground and below 50 ft RA.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum FPA selectable on the FCU?

Plus or minus 4.9 degrees

Plus or minus 4 degrees.

Plus or minus 6.9 degrees.

Plus or minus 9.9 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode automatically disengages at EO ACC ALT.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode does NOT automatically disengage at EO ACC ALT.

The autothrust is a function of the:

FACs (Flight Augmentation Computers).

FMGC (Flight Management Guidance Control).

ELACs (ELevator Aileron Computers).

SECs (Spoiler Elevator Computers).

Correct! Wrong!

How can be defined a GA TRK?

Entirely the same as TRK, although only displays on a go-around.

It guides the aircraft along a wind adjusted HDG for a given RWY TRK on go-around.

It guides the aircraft along a TRK set in the FCU at go-around.

It guides the aircraft along the current track at go-around initiation.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMGS synchronizes A/THR mode, AP/FD modes and approach capability to provide identical information on both PFDs.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

In the CLB detent, with ATHR on, what happens if the thrust levers are moved forward of the CLB detent?

AP disconnects.

Autothrottle returns to an ARMED state, with TOGA FLEX shown in a whitebox.

ATHR disconnects.

TOGA FLEX then becomes the upper band of the ATHR speed range

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the effect of activating the Approach Phase on the MCDU?

Aircraft will slow to the next flap limiting speed and the speed bug matches to the new target.

Aircraft will slow to the next flap limiting speed and the speed bug drops to Vapp.

LS automatically switches on should you be conducting an ILS approach.

Aircraft will slow to the green dot speed.

Correct! Wrong!

When is Windshear Protection available, when is it triggered?

Below 1300AGL and Flap 2 or greater.

Below 1500AGL and Flap 2 or greater.

Below 1300AGL and Flap 1 or greater.

Below 1500AGL and Flap 1 or greater.

Correct! Wrong!

When is ALPHA FLOOR available?

In Normal Law and alternate laws where ATHR is operative.

Always.

In Normal Law with operating autothrust.

In Normal law & Alternative laws only.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum VS selectable on the FCU?

Plus or minus 8000 fpm.

Plus or minus 6000 fpm.

Plus or minus 7000 fpm.

Plus or minus 5000 fpm.

Correct! Wrong!

After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?

Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC 3.

Once a DMC has failed the information is unrecoverable

No action is needed as recovery is automatic.

Correct! Wrong!

What causes the flight directors to flash on the PFD?

When a mode reversion occurs.

When a mode reversion occurs or alpha floor engages.

Alpha floor engages.

When a mode reversion occurs or loss of ILS data.

Correct! Wrong!

If the VAPP computed by the FMS is not available, the VAPP is:

VLS + 8 kt.

VLS + 5 kt.

VLS.

VLS + 10 kt.

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors automatically reappear when the bank angle becomes less than:

25 degrees.

40 degrees.

37 degrees.

33 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

Regarding metric altitudes, which of the following statements is true?

The metric altitude display on the ECAM shows the actual aircraft altitude.

The metric altitude display on the ECAM is driven by the FCU ALT knob.

Pressing the metric altitudes pb changes the FCU (only) indication to meters.

Pressing the metric altitude pb changes the FCU and the PFD display to meters.

Correct! Wrong!

What information is supplied by the IRs and displayed on the PFD?

Heading, altitude, and vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and altitude.

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors are removed automatically when the bank angle exceeds:

67 degrees.

40 degrees.

45 degrees.

58 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition, or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. What approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system?

CAT 3 SINGLE, CAT2 and CAT1.

CAT 3 SINGLE and CAT2.

CAT 2 and CAT 1.

Correct! Wrong!

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range:

The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA.

The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.

The flight controls revert to direct law.

Correct! Wrong!

With the ATHR Active, the actual thrust is primarily limited by:

The thrust setting associated with the position of the thrust lever.

Flight plan constraints.

Cost Index constraints.

MCT - TOGA.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed possible with ATHR ON?

V alpha Prot.

VLS.

V alpha MAX.

VAPP.

Correct! Wrong!

If the ATHR is switched off on the Instinctive disconnect pb:

ENG THR matches the current THR LVR position at the point of disconnect.

THR LOCK until the flight crew sets desired manual thrust.

Manual thrust mode is engaged.

Nothing.

Correct! Wrong!

If the autothrust has not failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Moving the trust lever to achieve a different N1.

Engaging the other autopilot.

Pressing the autothrust disconnect pb.

Pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU.

Correct! Wrong!

How long does a normal IR alignment take?

Approximately 13 minutes.

Approximately 10 minutes.

Approximately 6 minutes.

Approximately 3 minutes.

Correct! Wrong!

Fast alignment is used to refine a position when time is limited. A fast alignment takes approximately 30 seconds.

When the FCU is in Managed mode, how long will a selection in HDG-TRK or VS (without pulling) stay on the FCU before it disappears?

10 seconds.

30 seconds.

45 seconds.

60 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

In the Armed mode, the actual thrust is equal to:

MCT / TOGA.

The thrust setting associated with the position of THR LVR.

Cost Index constraints.

The THR setting in use, i.e. TOGA will equal TOGA thrust.

Correct! Wrong!

On the ground with both flight directors engaged, when will the autothrust arm?

When the takeoff config switch is pressed.

When FLEX or TOGA is selected.

As soon as the flight directors are engaged.

On first engine start.

Correct! Wrong!

What input on the PERF APPROACH page on the FMGC is required for ground speed mini to operate?

QNH.

BARO.

TEMP.

MAG WIND.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens when the autothrust system fails?

THR LK appears in column 1 of the FMA.

CLB thrust is commanded and the autothrust disconnects.

TOGA LK appears in column 1 of the FMA.

Both autopilot and autothrust disconnect.

Correct! Wrong!

A Managed Descent in a Holding Pattern gives what rate of descent?

800 fpm.

600 fpm.

500 fpm.

1000 fpm.

Correct! Wrong!

When the A/THR is armed the FCU’s A/THR pb light comes on and A/THR is displayed in white on the FMA.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

A/THR is displayed in blue on the FMA (not in white).

When the flaps are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

When the SLATS are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

In HDG TRK mode, a flight plan waypoint is sequenced if the waypoint is behind the aircraft and the aircraft is less than 7 NM from it, if the angle between the current aircraft track and the track of the leg is less than 90 degrees, and if the aircraft is flying a discontinuity towards a waypoint. This waypoint is sequenced when the aircraft is less than _____ from it.

5 NM.

2.5 NM.

7 NM.

Correct! Wrong!

The same conditions apply in NAV mode, except that no distance to the waypoint is taken into account.

When alpha floor protection is triggered it automatically commands TOGA thrust on both engines, regardless of the position of the thrust levers.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

Alpha Floor Protection is available from lift-off until the aircraft reaches 100 feet RA on the approach to landing.

The FMA displays the DECELERATE special message. What does it mean?

The thrust is not reduced when passing the Top of Descent, and the aircraft is above the flight profile.

The thrust must be reduced to achieve a proper deceleration before a speed constraint.

The speed target must be reduced to achieve the flight profile.

Correct! Wrong!

On ground the flight crew arms A/THR by pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the engines are not running, or by setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

Losing both channels of the FCU will result in losing:

The flight directors only.

The flight directors, autothrust and autopilots.

The autothrust only.

The flight directors and autothrust.

Correct! Wrong!

The RWY mode is a managed lateral mode. When a LOC, VOR or SLS signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff only.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

Only when a LOC signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff, AND initial climb. The RWY guidance law aims to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline during the takeoff run. When the aircraft is airborne, the RWY guidance law aims to maintain the sideslip indicator centered. To follow the guidance, the FD displays the conventional guidance bar.

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

Alignment has been completed.

Air data output has been disconnected.

The respective IR is operating normally.

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS mode engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent, providing:

V2 has been inserted in the MCDU PERF TAKEOFF page, the slats are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 30 seconds.

V2 is available, the flaps are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 60 seconds.

V2 is available, the flaps and slats are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 60 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

The OFF light will illuminate, and air data output will disconnect.

Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.

All statements are correct.

The respective ADIRU will become de-energized.

Correct! Wrong!

The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 2 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 1 and ND 1.

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 1.

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI. ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 2.

Correct! Wrong!

If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

The ADIRU is not energized: AD and IR information is lost.

AD and IR information will be disconnected.

IR information will be disconnected.

AD information will be disconnected.

Correct! Wrong!

The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON. An alignment fault may exist.

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON.

Attitude and heading information have been lost. An alignment fault may exist.

Correct! Wrong!

If during takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an altitude on the FCU below the current altitude, the aircraft will remain in SRS mode until the flight crew takes some other action.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

If the A/THR disconnect switches are held for more than 15 seconds, the A/THR is disconnected for the reminder of the flight (this includes alpha floor).

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

No.

Yes.

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors are removed automatically when the pitch exceeds:

+20 degrees and -15 degrees.

+25 degrees and -17 degrees.

+28 degrees and -10 degrees.

+25 degrees and -13 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

With the loss of ILS data (GS, LOC, LAND, etc.) how long do the flight directors flash for?

Permanently.

5 seconds.

7 seconds

10 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight

Airbus A320 – Automatic Flight

At what point can the autopilot be used until on an approach using FINAL APP?

What navigation display (ND) setting is automatically displayed when both channels of the FCU are lost?

What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

An automatic landing system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the remaining part of the automatic landing system allows the aircraft to complete the approach, flare, and landing.

The "ON BAT" light will illuminate amber:

How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the managed speed target will still be computed.

The thrust delivered by A THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

With the A/THR engaged, it is possible to achieve more thrust than MAX CLB thrust.

During the takeoff phase:

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

At what point can the autopilot be used until on a CAT1 ILS approach?

When is the autopilot first available for use after takeoff?

What happens if the THR LVR ATHR buttons are pushed for more than 15 seconds?

At what point after a manual go-around can the autopilot be engaged?

The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.

The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform:

The DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator) provides the flight crew with:

What is the main SRS (Speed Reference System) purpose?

When the aircraft overflies a flight plan discontinuity, the NAV mode automatically reverts to the HDG TRK mode.

How can the FMGC be used to exit a holding pattern?

At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?

What action should be taken if ADR 1 is lost?

The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:

FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

If hand flown to VLS or VMAX with the autothrust engaged, which mode will it automatically revert to?

The A/THR is active when it controls thrust or speed. The position of the thrust lever determines the maximum thrust that the A/THR system can command (except in alpha floor condition).

What is Displayed in the top center of the ND?

Which baro altimeters are considered usable when both channels of the FCU are lost?

During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the "Ground Speed Mini". The lowest speed target is limited to:

What is the pitch mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

What does -FD2 on the PFD mean?

What happens to ATHR if the thrust levers are moved to idle?

What is the minimum speed selectable on the FCU?

FMA Green annunciation - APP NAV and FINAL modes are engaged during a non precision approach.

What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?

In which case are AP, FD, A/THR and Autoland capabilities lost?

What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFDs?

What does a Temporary white Box indicate on an FMA?

What does 2FD2 on the PFD mean?

What is the roll mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

What happens on the PFD Altitude Tape when the Aircraft descends below MDA?

What action should be taken if IR 2 is lost?

What will happen if V2 is not inserted into the PERF TAKEOFF page?

SRS provides the correct pitch attitude for:

What happens to the IAS Bug if FDs and APs are switched OFF?

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?

What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?

The ground speed mini function works in both managed and selected speed modes.

The FMA displays the CHECK SPEED MODE special message. What does it mean?

The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.

SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.

What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

A THR in white means that A THR is:

What happens to the RA Indication during a low visibility Approach with DH 50?

When does "LAND" appear on the FMA?

In approach with FINAL APP, VS or FPA mode, the autopilot can be used until:

If the autothrust has failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system will fly the aircraft and is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). What else is true about VLS?

How many Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed?

The engagement of both autopilots is possible.

What is the maximum speed selectable on the FCU?

When is the Yaw bar displayed?

What is the maximum FPA selectable on the FCU?

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode automatically disengages at EO ACC ALT.

The autothrust is a function of the:

How can be defined a GA TRK?

The FMGS synchronizes A/THR mode, AP/FD modes and approach capability to provide identical information on both PFDs.

In the CLB detent, with ATHR on, what happens if the thrust levers are moved forward of the CLB detent?

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

What is the effect of activating the Approach Phase on the MCDU?

When is Windshear Protection available, when is it triggered?

When is ALPHA FLOOR available?

What is the maximum VS selectable on the FCU?

After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?