The FMA displays the DECELERATE special message. What does it mean?
The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:
What happens to the RA Indication during a low visibility Approach with DH 50?
If the VAPP computed by the FMS is not available, the VAPP is:
The ground speed mini function works in both managed and selected speed modes.
The Ground Speed Mini function is active when the speed is managed and the FMS flight phase is the approach phase.
What is the effect of activating the Approach Phase on the MCDU?
VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the managed speed target will still be computed.
At what point can the autopilot be used until on an approach using FINAL APP?
FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.
A white box is displayed for 10 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 15 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.
The engagement of both autopilots is possible.
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The FMGS synchronizes A/THR mode, AP/FD modes and approach capability to provide identical information on both PFDs.
What is the maximum VS selectable on the FCU?
With the A/THR engaged, it is possible to achieve more thrust than MAX CLB thrust.
Losing both channels of the FCU will result in losing:
What navigation display (ND) setting is automatically displayed when both channels of the FCU are lost?
What does 2FD2 on the PFD mean?
What will happen if V2 is not inserted into the PERF TAKEOFF page?
When is ALPHA FLOOR available?

If the ATHR is switched off on the Instinctive disconnect pb:
On the ground with both flight directors engaged, when will the autothrust arm?
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The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?
A THR in white means that A THR is:
The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.
There is a pitch angle protection to reduce the aircraft nose-up: 18 degrees (A319 and A320) – 15 degrees (A321) of maximum pitch attitude or 22.5 degrees maximum in case of windshear).
When the aircraft overflies a flight plan discontinuity, the NAV mode automatically reverts to the HDG TRK mode.
A Managed Descent in a Holding Pattern gives what rate of descent?
An automatic landing system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the remaining part of the automatic landing system allows the aircraft to complete the approach, flare, and landing.
The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?
When is the autopilot first available for use after takeoff?
When the FCU is in Managed mode, how long will a selection in HDG-TRK or VS (without pulling) stay on the FCU before it disappears?
When is the Yaw bar displayed?
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The DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator) provides the flight crew with:
What action should be taken if ADR 1 is lost?
How can the FMGC be used to exit a holding pattern?
What does a Temporary white Box indicate on an FMA?
Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?
When the flaps are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).
When the SLATS are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).
If hand flown to VLS or VMAX with the autothrust engaged, which mode will it automatically revert to?
If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:
If the A/THR disconnect switches are held for more than 15 seconds, the A/THR is disconnected for the reminder of the flight (this includes alpha floor).
What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?
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The flight directors are removed automatically when the pitch exceeds:
What information is supplied by the IRs and displayed on the PFD?
When alpha floor protection is triggered it automatically commands TOGA thrust on both engines, regardless of the position of the thrust levers.
Alpha Floor Protection is available from lift-off until the aircraft reaches 100 feet RA on the approach to landing.
When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?
At what point can the autopilot be used until on a CAT1 ILS approach?
The SRS mode engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent, providing:
The flight directors automatically reappear when the bank angle becomes less than:
In the Armed mode, the actual thrust is equal to:
The flight directors are removed automatically when the bank angle exceeds:
While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range:
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SRS provides the correct pitch attitude for:
In HDG TRK mode, a flight plan waypoint is sequenced if the waypoint is behind the aircraft and the aircraft is less than 7 NM from it, if the angle between the current aircraft track and the track of the leg is less than 90 degrees, and if the aircraft is flying a discontinuity towards a waypoint. This waypoint is sequenced when the aircraft is less than _____ from it.
The same conditions apply in NAV mode, except that no distance to the waypoint is taken into account.
An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition, or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. What approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system?
What is the roll mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?
If the autothrust has not failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?
In which case are AP, FD, A/THR and Autoland capabilities lost?
What is Displayed in the top center of the ND?
What is the pitch mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?
What happens to the IAS Bug if FDs and APs are switched OFF?
How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?
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During the takeoff phase:
What input on the PERF APPROACH page on the FMGC is required for ground speed mini to operate?
With the loss of ILS data (GS, LOC, LAND, etc.) how long do the flight directors flash for?
VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system will fly the aircraft and is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). What else is true about VLS?
When the A/THR is armed the FCU’s A/THR pb light comes on and A/THR is displayed in white on the FMA.
A/THR is displayed in blue on the FMA (not in white).
What is the minimum speed selectable on the FCU?
What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?
Normally FMGC1 is the source for the left side and FMGC2 for the right side. If both FMGCs are functional and FDs are on then 1FD2 should be displayed. If one FMGC fails then the other one becomes the source for both FDs: if FMGC1 is inoperative then the display would be 2FD2 which means FMGC2 is the source for both FDs. If right FD is switched off then the display would be 2FD-
After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?
What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?
If accuracy is "LOW" (and whenever "NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD" appears), the flight crew should compare raw data from the tuned navaids with the corresponding FM computed data on the ND or the MCDU PROG page
The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.
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What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?
The RWY mode is a managed lateral mode. When a LOC, VOR or SLS signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff only.
Only when a LOC signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff, AND initial climb. The RWY guidance law aims to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline during the takeoff run. When the aircraft is airborne, the RWY guidance law aims to maintain the sideslip indicator centered. To follow the guidance, the FD displays the conventional guidance bar.
SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.
The "ON BAT" light will illuminate amber:

What happens if the THR LVR ATHR buttons are pushed for more than 15 seconds?
In approach with FINAL APP, VS or FPA mode, the autopilot can be used until:
How can be defined a GA TRK?
What is the main SRS (Speed Reference System) purpose?
The SRS mode controls pitch to steer the aircraft along a path in the vertical plan at a speed defined by the SRS guidance law. In SRS mode, the aircraft maintains a speed target equal to V2+10 kt in normal engine configuration. When the FMGS detects an engine failure, the speed target becomes the highest of V2 or current speed, limited by V2+15 kt.
What happens to ATHR if the thrust levers are moved to idle?
When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?
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The FMA displays the CHECK SPEED MODE special message. What does it mean?
What happens on the PFD Altitude Tape when the Aircraft descends below MDA?
In the CLB detent, with ATHR on, what happens if the thrust levers are moved forward of the CLB detent?
At what point after a manual go-around can the autopilot be engaged?
The A/THR is active when it controls thrust or speed. The position of the thrust lever determines the maximum thrust that the A/THR system can command (except in alpha floor condition).
Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?
Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?
Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

How long does a normal IR alignment take?
Fast alignment is used to refine a position when time is limited. A fast alignment takes approximately 30 seconds.
During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the "Ground Speed Mini". The lowest speed target is limited to:
Ground speed mini concept has been defined to prevent the aircraft energy from dropping below a minimum level during final approach. The GS mini value is not displayed to the flight crew.
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How many Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed?
What does -FD2 on the PFD mean?
What is the maximum FPA selectable on the FCU?
With the ATHR Active, the actual thrust is primarily limited by:
The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform:
If a failure is detected on any channel of FAC1, FAC2 takes over the corresponding channel.
The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:
If the autothrust has failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?
An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

The autothrust is a function of the:
What is the minimum speed possible with ATHR ON?
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When is Windshear Protection available, when is it triggered?
Which baro altimeters are considered usable when both channels of the FCU are lost?
What causes the flight directors to flash on the PFD?
What action should be taken if IR 2 is lost?

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?
At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?
The thrust delivered by A THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?
What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?
When does "LAND" appear on the FMA?
FMA Green annunciation - APP NAV and FINAL modes are engaged during a non precision approach.
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What happens when the autothrust system fails?
Regarding metric altitudes, which of the following statements is true?
On ground the flight crew arms A/THR by pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the engines are not running, or by setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.
What is the maximum speed selectable on the FCU?
If during takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an altitude on the FCU below the current altitude, the aircraft will remain in SRS mode until the flight crew takes some other action.
What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFDs?
In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode automatically disengages at EO ACC ALT.
In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode does NOT automatically disengage at EO ACC ALT.