Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight - SmartCockpit - Airline training guides, Aviation, Operations, Safety

In HDG TRK mode, a flight plan waypoint is sequenced if the waypoint is behind the aircraft and the aircraft is less than 7 NM from it, if the angle between the current aircraft track and the track of the leg is less than 90 degrees, and if the aircraft is flying a discontinuity towards a waypoint. This waypoint is sequenced when the aircraft is less than _____ from it.

7 NM.

5 NM.

2.5 NM.

Correct! Wrong!

The same conditions apply in NAV mode, except that no distance to the waypoint is taken into account.

The engagement of both autopilots is possible.

When LOC and GS modes are armed.

At all times.

When LAND mode engages.

When the Approach Phase is activated.

Correct! Wrong!

The autothrust is a function of the:

ELACs (ELevator Aileron Computers).

FMGC (Flight Management Guidance Control).

FACs (Flight Augmentation Computers).

SECs (Spoiler Elevator Computers).

Correct! Wrong!

What action should be taken if IR 2 is lost?

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.

Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum VS selectable on the FCU?

Plus or minus 6000 fpm.

Plus or minus 5000 fpm.

Plus or minus 7000 fpm.

Plus or minus 8000 fpm.

Correct! Wrong!

The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:

AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation.

Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions

Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands

Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.

Correct! Wrong!

In the Armed mode, the actual thrust is equal to:

The thrust setting associated with the position of THR LVR.

The THR setting in use, i.e. TOGA will equal TOGA thrust.

Cost Index constraints.

MCT / TOGA.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens when the autothrust system fails?

THR LK appears in column 1 of the FMA.

CLB thrust is commanded and the autothrust disconnects.

TOGA LK appears in column 1 of the FMA.

Both autopilot and autothrust disconnect.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed possible with ATHR ON?

VAPP.

VLS.

V alpha Prot.

V alpha MAX.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?

At FMGC system power up.

When DC power is connected.

At first engine start.

When AC power is connected.

Correct! Wrong!

When the aircraft overflies a flight plan discontinuity, the NAV mode automatically reverts to the HDG TRK mode.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What does 2FD2 on the PFD mean?

1 is the master, 2 is the slave.

1 is off, 2 is engaged.

1 is inoperative, 2 is engaged.

1 is the slave, 2 is the master.

Correct! Wrong!

When alpha floor protection is triggered it automatically commands TOGA thrust on both engines, regardless of the position of the thrust levers.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

Alpha Floor Protection is available from lift-off until the aircraft reaches 100 feet RA on the approach to landing.

If during takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an altitude on the FCU below the current altitude, the aircraft will remain in SRS mode until the flight crew takes some other action.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

On the ground with both flight directors engaged, when will the autothrust arm?

As soon as the flight directors are engaged.

On first engine start.

When FLEX or TOGA is selected.

When the takeoff config switch is pressed.

Correct! Wrong!

In the CLB detent, with ATHR on, what happens if the thrust levers are moved forward of the CLB detent?

TOGA FLEX then becomes the upper band of the ATHR speed range

AP disconnects.

Autothrottle returns to an ARMED state, with TOGA FLEX shown in a whitebox.

ATHR disconnects.

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.

Correct! Wrong!

When the A/THR is armed the FCU’s A/THR pb light comes on and A/THR is displayed in white on the FMA.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

A/THR is displayed in blue on the FMA (not in white).

FMA Green annunciation - APP NAV and FINAL modes are engaged during a non precision approach.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What causes the flight directors to flash on the PFD?

When a mode reversion occurs.

Alpha floor engages.

When a mode reversion occurs or loss of ILS data.

When a mode reversion occurs or alpha floor engages.

Correct! Wrong!

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.

The respective ADIRU will become de-energized.

The OFF light will illuminate, and air data output will disconnect.

All statements are correct.

Correct! Wrong!

When is the autopilot first available for use after takeoff?

At or above 240ft AGL.

At or above 150ft AGL.

At or above 100ft AGL and after 5 seconds.

At or above 400ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

SRS provides the correct pitch attitude for:

The best combination of rate of climb and desired airspeed.

The desired airspeed.

The desired rate of climb.

The desired climb speed.

Correct! Wrong!

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

Alignment has been completed.

The respective IR is operating normally.

Air data output has been disconnected.

Correct! Wrong!

A THR in white means that A THR is:

Armed.

Disconnected.

Active.

Correct! Wrong!

What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

Check Effective Date.

Check Data Base Cycle.

Check Data Base Date.

Check Changeover date.

Correct! Wrong!

FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

A white box is displayed for 10 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 15 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

On ground the flight crew arms A/THR by pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the engines are not running, or by setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

What does a Temporary white Box indicate on an FMA?

Recently changed mode.

Aircraft cannot meet the requirements of that mode.

Mode reversion.

Armed mode.

Correct! Wrong!

When the FCU is in Managed mode, how long will a selection in HDG-TRK or VS (without pulling) stay on the FCU before it disappears?

60 seconds.

45 seconds.

30 seconds.

10 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMGS synchronizes A/THR mode, AP/FD modes and approach capability to provide identical information on both PFDs.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

With the loss of ILS data (GS, LOC, LAND, etc.) how long do the flight directors flash for?

10 seconds.

Permanently.

7 seconds

5 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

What is Displayed in the top center of the ND?

The runway of the selected approach in the MCDU.

The active approach.

Active Nav Aids.

HDG Indication.

Correct! Wrong!

An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition, or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. What approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system?

CAT 2 and CAT 1.

CAT 3 SINGLE, CAT2 and CAT1.

CAT 3 SINGLE and CAT2.

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

There is a pitch angle protection to reduce the aircraft nose-up: 18 degrees (A319 and A320) – 15 degrees (A321) of maximum pitch attitude or 22.5 degrees maximum in case of windshear).

What happens to the IAS Bug if FDs and APs are switched OFF?

Nothing.

All bugs are lost.

Remains in Managed Mode (Magenta) in case managed mode is engaged again.

Reverts to Selected Mode (Blue).

Correct! Wrong!

VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system will fly the aircraft and is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). What else is true about VLS?

VLS will change with wing configuration change.

With speedbrake extension, VLS will increase.

All statements are correct.

Above FL200, VLS will provide a 0.2g buffet margin.

Correct! Wrong!

What information is supplied by the IRs and displayed on the PFD?

Heading, altitude, and vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and altitude.

Correct! Wrong!

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode automatically disengages at EO ACC ALT.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode does NOT automatically disengage at EO ACC ALT.

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?

FUEL PRED page.

PROG page.

INIT A page.

TAKE OFF PERF page.

Correct! Wrong!

If the autothrust has not failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU.

Engaging the other autopilot.

Moving the trust lever to achieve a different N1.

Pressing the autothrust disconnect pb.

Correct! Wrong!

If hand flown to VLS or VMAX with the autothrust engaged, which mode will it automatically revert to?

MAN TOGA.

THR LK.

THR CLB.

SPEED.

Correct! Wrong!

A Managed Descent in a Holding Pattern gives what rate of descent?

1000 fpm.

800 fpm.

600 fpm.

500 fpm.

Correct! Wrong!

The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform:

Three main functions - Yaw function, flight envelope function, and low energy aural alert function.

Four main functions - Yaw function, flight envelope function, low energy aural alert function and windshear detection function.

Two main functions - Yaw function and flight envelope function.

Correct! Wrong!

If a failure is detected on any channel of FAC1, FAC2 takes over the corresponding channel.

SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

How many Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed?

Four.

Two.

One.

Three.

Correct! Wrong!

When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?

10ft, 40ft.

10ft, 20ft.

10ft, 30ft.

20ft, 10ft.

Correct! Wrong!

If the ATHR is switched off on the Instinctive disconnect pb:

ENG THR matches the current THR LVR position at the point of disconnect.

Manual thrust mode is engaged.

Nothing.

THR LOCK until the flight crew sets desired manual thrust.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop

1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.

Correct! Wrong!

Normally FMGC1 is the source for the left side and FMGC2 for the right side. If both FMGCs are functional and FDs are on then 1FD2 should be displayed. If one FMGC fails then the other one becomes the source for both FDs: if FMGC1 is inoperative then the display would be 2FD2 which means FMGC2 is the source for both FDs. If right FD is switched off then the display would be 2FD-

How long does a normal IR alignment take?

Approximately 10 minutes.

Approximately 6 minutes.

Approximately 3 minutes.

Approximately 13 minutes.

Correct! Wrong!

Fast alignment is used to refine a position when time is limited. A fast alignment takes approximately 30 seconds.

After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?

Once a DMC has failed the information is unrecoverable

Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC 3.

No action is needed as recovery is automatic.

Correct! Wrong!

When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?

12 seconds.

7 seconds.

10 seconds.

5 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the roll mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

RWY.

NAV.

NAV or TRK.

HDG.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum FPA selectable on the FCU?

Plus or minus 9.9 degrees.

Plus or minus 4.9 degrees

Plus or minus 4 degrees.

Plus or minus 6.9 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range:

The flight controls revert to direct law.

The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.

The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA.

Correct! Wrong!

With the ATHR Active, the actual thrust is primarily limited by:

MCT - TOGA.

Cost Index constraints.

Flight plan constraints.

The thrust setting associated with the position of the thrust lever.

Correct! Wrong!

The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI. ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 2.

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 1.

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 2 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 1 and ND 1.

Correct! Wrong!

The A/THR is active when it controls thrust or speed. The position of the thrust lever determines the maximum thrust that the A/THR system can command (except in alpha floor condition).

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens on the PFD Altitude Tape when the Aircraft descends below MDA?

Altitude box turns amber.

Altitude numbers turn amber.

Altitude box flashes.

Altitude numbers turn red.

Correct! Wrong!

When the flaps are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

When the SLATS are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

If the autothrust has failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Moving the trust lever to achieve a different N1.

Pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU.

Engaging the other autopilot.

Pressing the autothrust disconnect pb.

Correct! Wrong!

Losing both channels of the FCU will result in losing:

The flight directors, autothrust and autopilots.

The flight directors and autothrust.

The flight directors only.

The autothrust only.

Correct! Wrong!

During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the "Ground Speed Mini". The lowest speed target is limited to:

VAPP and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-5 in CONF FULL.

VAPP+7 and its upper limit is VFE-5 of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-3 in CONF FULL.

VAPP+ 5 kt and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration.

Correct! Wrong!

Ground speed mini concept has been defined to prevent the aircraft energy from dropping below a minimum level during final approach. The GS mini value is not displayed to the flight crew.

During the takeoff phase:

SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft.

SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference.

SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point can the autopilot be used until on a CAT1 ILS approach?

160 ft.

100 ft.

500 ft.

250 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed selectable on the FCU?

100 kt.

0 kt.

VLS.

Alpha Prot.

Correct! Wrong!

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

Alpha floor.

Pitch attitude.

ALPHA SPD (alpha speed)

VLS.

Correct! Wrong!

How can be defined a GA TRK?

It guides the aircraft along a TRK set in the FCU at go-around.

It guides the aircraft along the current track at go-around initiation.

It guides the aircraft along a wind adjusted HDG for a given RWY TRK on go-around.

Entirely the same as TRK, although only displays on a go-around.

Correct! Wrong!

When is Windshear Protection available, when is it triggered?

Below 1300AGL and Flap 2 or greater.

Below 1300AGL and Flap 1 or greater.

Below 1500AGL and Flap 1 or greater.

Below 1500AGL and Flap 2 or greater.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point after a manual go-around can the autopilot be engaged?

Above 300 ft AGL.

Above 100 ft AGL.

Above 160 ft AGL.

Above 250 ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard.

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.

The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the main SRS (Speed Reference System) purpose?

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+15 (2 engines) or V2 maximum (1 engine).

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+5 (2 engines) or V2 maximum (1 engine).

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+10 (2 engines) or V2+15 maximum (1 engine).

It provides instructions to the flight director computers.

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS mode controls pitch to steer the aircraft along a path in the vertical plan at a speed defined by the SRS guidance law. In SRS mode, the aircraft maintains a speed target equal to V2+10 kt in normal engine configuration. When the FMGS detects an engine failure, the speed target becomes the highest of V2 or current speed, limited by V2+15 kt.

The SRS mode engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent, providing:

V2 is available, the flaps and slats are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 60 seconds.

V2 has been inserted in the MCDU PERF TAKEOFF page, the slats are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 30 seconds.

V2 is available, the flaps are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 60 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the managed speed target will still be computed.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMA displays the CHECK SPEED MODE special message. What does it mean?

The SPEED target is selected and the flight crew did not enter a speed target in the PERF CLB page, or a speed-Mach target in the PERF DES page.

The speed target is not selected.

The SPEED target, as selected, is invalid or the flight crew did not enter any speed target in the PERF CLB page.

Correct! Wrong!

The DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator) provides the flight crew with:

Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.

Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.

Bearing only for VOR 1.

Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum speed selectable on the FCU?

500 kt.

450 kt.

499 kt.

399 kt.

Correct! Wrong!

What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

FMGC 1 and 2 position difference exceeds limits.

FMGC position and IR position difference exceeds limits.

FMGC position and actual radio position difference exceeds limits.

Correct! Wrong!

If accuracy is "LOW" (and whenever "NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD" appears), the flight crew should compare raw data from the tuned navaids with the corresponding FM computed data on the ND or the MCDU PROG page

The flight directors are removed automatically when the pitch exceeds:

+25 degrees and -17 degrees.

+25 degrees and -13 degrees.

+20 degrees and -15 degrees.

+28 degrees and -10 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

The RWY mode is a managed lateral mode. When a LOC, VOR or SLS signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff only.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

Only when a LOC signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff, AND initial climb. The RWY guidance law aims to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline during the takeoff run. When the aircraft is airborne, the RWY guidance law aims to maintain the sideslip indicator centered. To follow the guidance, the FD displays the conventional guidance bar.

An automatic landing system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the remaining part of the automatic landing system allows the aircraft to complete the approach, flare, and landing.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

No.

Yes.

Correct! Wrong!

What action should be taken if ADR 1 is lost?

Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Nothing.

Correct! Wrong!

In approach with FINAL APP, VS or FPA mode, the autopilot can be used until:

250 ft AGL.

200 ft AGL.

300 ft AGL.

180 ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

In which case are AP, FD, A/THR and Autoland capabilities lost?

1 ADC (Air data Computer) failure.

2 FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer) failures.

2 RA (Radio Altimeters) failures.

2 IRS or ADC (Air Data Computer) failures.

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors are removed automatically when the bank angle exceeds:

58 degrees.

40 degrees.

67 degrees.

45 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to the RA Indication during a low visibility Approach with DH 50?

It turns green.

It flashes green.

It flashes amber.

It turns amber.

Correct! Wrong!

When is the Yaw bar displayed?

Below 30 ft RA.

On the ground, or below 30 ft RA.

On the ground and below 50 ft RA.

On the ground.

Correct! Wrong!

Regarding metric altitudes, which of the following statements is true?

The metric altitude display on the ECAM shows the actual aircraft altitude.

The metric altitude display on the ECAM is driven by the FCU ALT knob.

Pressing the metric altitudes pb changes the FCU (only) indication to meters.

Pressing the metric altitude pb changes the FCU and the PFD display to meters.

Correct! Wrong!

What navigation display (ND) setting is automatically displayed when both channels of the FCU are lost?

The current display setting at the time of the failure.

ARC 160 NM.

ARC 80 NM.

ROSE NAV 80 NM.

Correct! Wrong!

When does "LAND" appear on the FMA?

LOC Arm.

GS Arm less than 400 RA.

LOC and G/S Arm less than 400 RA.

LOC and G/S Arm.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens if the THR LVR ATHR buttons are pushed for more than 15 seconds?

ATHR disconnects.

ATHR is lost for the reminder of the flight along with any ATHR associated protections.

Manual thrust mode is engaged.

ATHR is lost for the reminder of the flight.

Correct! Wrong!

The "ON BAT" light will illuminate amber:

Both statements are correct.

When one or more IRs are operating on aircraft battery power.

For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.

Correct! Wrong!

What does -FD2 on the PFD mean?

1 is the master, 2 is the slave.

1 is off, 2 is engaged.

1 is the slave, 2 is the master.

1 is inoperative, 2 is engaged.

Correct! Wrong!

What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFDs?

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.

Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and vertical speed.

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

Correct! Wrong!

The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON. An alignment fault may exist.

Attitude and heading information have been lost. An alignment fault may exist.

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON.

Correct! Wrong!

How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.

Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU.

Both statements are correct.

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors automatically reappear when the bank angle becomes less than:

37 degrees.

40 degrees.

25 degrees.

33 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

The thrust delivered by A THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

No, because the A THR already delivers the maximum available thrust.

Yes, by setting a higher speed target.

Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.

Correct! Wrong!

If the VAPP computed by the FMS is not available, the VAPP is:

VLS + 8 kt.

VLS + 5 kt.

VLS + 10 kt.

VLS.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to ATHR if the thrust levers are moved to idle?

AP Disconnects.

ATHR demands IDLE Thrust.

ATHR Disconnects.

LEVER CLB appears on the PFD reminding the pilots of an incorrect THR LVR position.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the effect of activating the Approach Phase on the MCDU?

Aircraft will slow to the next flap limiting speed and the speed bug matches to the new target.

Aircraft will slow to the green dot speed.

Aircraft will slow to the next flap limiting speed and the speed bug drops to Vapp.

LS automatically switches on should you be conducting an ILS approach.

Correct! Wrong!

Which baro altimeters are considered usable when both channels of the FCU are lost?

The PFD and standby altimeters

The PFD altimeters only.

The standby altimeter only.

None of the baro references.

Correct! Wrong!

If the A/THR disconnect switches are held for more than 15 seconds, the A/THR is disconnected for the reminder of the flight (this includes alpha floor).

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the pitch mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

ALT.

CLB.

OPN CLB.

VS.

Correct! Wrong!

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

Present position needs to be reentered.

A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.

Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.

Correct! Wrong!

When is ALPHA FLOOR available?

In Normal Law with operating autothrust.

In Normal Law and alternate laws where ATHR is operative.

Always.

In Normal law & Alternative laws only.

Correct! Wrong!

If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

IR information will be disconnected.

AD information will be disconnected.

AD and IR information will be disconnected.

The ADIRU is not energized: AD and IR information is lost.

Correct! Wrong!

The ground speed mini function works in both managed and selected speed modes.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

The Ground Speed Mini function is active when the speed is managed and the FMS flight phase is the approach phase.

The FMA displays the DECELERATE special message. What does it mean?

The thrust must be reduced to achieve a proper deceleration before a speed constraint.

The thrust is not reduced when passing the Top of Descent, and the aircraft is above the flight profile.

The speed target must be reduced to achieve the flight profile.

Correct! Wrong!

What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

A DMC failure.

An AC power failure.

No power.

The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped out.

Correct! Wrong!

How can the FMGC be used to exit a holding pattern?

Activate the HOLD EXIT prompt.

Using the CLR EXIT prompt.

Activate the IMM EXIT prompt.

Hold will automatically cancel overflying the fix.

Correct! Wrong!

With the A/THR engaged, it is possible to achieve more thrust than MAX CLB thrust.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

What will happen if V2 is not inserted into the PERF TAKEOFF page?

No FMA will display in column 2.

SRS will still engage when FLEX/TOGA is selected.

VS mode engages 5 seconds after lift-off.

The aircraft will target the speed achieved at lift off.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point can the autopilot be used until on an approach using FINAL APP?

500 ft.

250 ft.

160 ft.

100 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

What input on the PERF APPROACH page on the FMGC is required for ground speed mini to operate?

QNH.

TEMP.

BARO.

MAG WIND.

Correct! Wrong!

Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight

Airbus A320 – Automatic Flight

The engagement of both autopilots is possible.

The autothrust is a function of the:

What action should be taken if IR 2 is lost?

What is the maximum VS selectable on the FCU?

The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:

In the Armed mode, the actual thrust is equal to:

What happens when the autothrust system fails?

What is the minimum speed possible with ATHR ON?

At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?

When the aircraft overflies a flight plan discontinuity, the NAV mode automatically reverts to the HDG TRK mode.

What does 2FD2 on the PFD mean?

When alpha floor protection is triggered it automatically commands TOGA thrust on both engines, regardless of the position of the thrust levers.

If during takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an altitude on the FCU below the current altitude, the aircraft will remain in SRS mode until the flight crew takes some other action.

On the ground with both flight directors engaged, when will the autothrust arm?

In the CLB detent, with ATHR on, what happens if the thrust levers are moved forward of the CLB detent?

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

When the A/THR is armed the FCU’s A/THR pb light comes on and A/THR is displayed in white on the FMA.

FMA Green annunciation - APP NAV and FINAL modes are engaged during a non precision approach.

What causes the flight directors to flash on the PFD?

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

When is the autopilot first available for use after takeoff?

SRS provides the correct pitch attitude for:

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

A THR in white means that A THR is:

What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

On ground the flight crew arms A/THR by pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the engines are not running, or by setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.

What does a Temporary white Box indicate on an FMA?

When the FCU is in Managed mode, how long will a selection in HDG-TRK or VS (without pulling) stay on the FCU before it disappears?

The FMGS synchronizes A/THR mode, AP/FD modes and approach capability to provide identical information on both PFDs.

With the loss of ILS data (GS, LOC, LAND, etc.) how long do the flight directors flash for?

What is Displayed in the top center of the ND?

An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition, or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. What approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system?

The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.

What happens to the IAS Bug if FDs and APs are switched OFF?

VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system will fly the aircraft and is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). What else is true about VLS?

What information is supplied by the IRs and displayed on the PFD?

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode automatically disengages at EO ACC ALT.

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?

If the autothrust has not failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

If hand flown to VLS or VMAX with the autothrust engaged, which mode will it automatically revert to?

A Managed Descent in a Holding Pattern gives what rate of descent?

The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform:

SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.

How many Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed?

When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?

If the ATHR is switched off on the Instinctive disconnect pb:

What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

How long does a normal IR alignment take?

After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?

When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?

What is the roll mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

What is the maximum FPA selectable on the FCU?

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range:

With the ATHR Active, the actual thrust is primarily limited by:

The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:

The A/THR is active when it controls thrust or speed. The position of the thrust lever determines the maximum thrust that the A/THR system can command (except in alpha floor condition).

What happens on the PFD Altitude Tape when the Aircraft descends below MDA?

When the flaps are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

If the autothrust has failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Losing both channels of the FCU will result in losing:

During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the "Ground Speed Mini". The lowest speed target is limited to:

During the takeoff phase:

At what point can the autopilot be used until on a CAT1 ILS approach?

What is the minimum speed selectable on the FCU?

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

How can be defined a GA TRK?

When is Windshear Protection available, when is it triggered?

At what point after a manual go-around can the autopilot be engaged?

What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

What is the main SRS (Speed Reference System) purpose?

The SRS mode engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent, providing:

VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the managed speed target will still be computed.

The FMA displays the CHECK SPEED MODE special message. What does it mean?

The DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator) provides the flight crew with:

What is the maximum speed selectable on the FCU?

What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

The flight directors are removed automatically when the pitch exceeds:

The RWY mode is a managed lateral mode. When a LOC, VOR or SLS signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff only.