Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight

In the CLB detent, with ATHR on, what happens if the thrust levers are moved forward of the CLB detent?

Autothrottle returns to an ARMED state, with TOGA FLEX shown in a whitebox.

ATHR disconnects.

TOGA FLEX then becomes the upper band of the ATHR speed range

AP disconnects.

Correct! Wrong!

VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the managed speed target will still be computed.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What navigation display (ND) setting is automatically displayed when both channels of the FCU are lost?

ROSE NAV 80 NM.

ARC 80 NM.

The current display setting at the time of the failure.

ARC 160 NM.

Correct! Wrong!

Regarding metric altitudes, which of the following statements is true?

The metric altitude display on the ECAM is driven by the FCU ALT knob.

Pressing the metric altitudes pb changes the FCU (only) indication to meters.

Pressing the metric altitude pb changes the FCU and the PFD display to meters.

The metric altitude display on the ECAM shows the actual aircraft altitude.

Correct! Wrong!

A THR in white means that A THR is:

Active.

Disconnected.

Armed.

Correct! Wrong!

When the A/THR is armed the FCU’s A/THR pb light comes on and A/THR is displayed in white on the FMA.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

A/THR is displayed in blue on the FMA (not in white).

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

Alignment has been completed.

Air data output has been disconnected.

The respective IR is operating normally.

Correct! Wrong!

The DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator) provides the flight crew with:

Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.

Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.

Bearing only for VOR 1.

Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

There is a pitch angle protection to reduce the aircraft nose-up: 18 degrees (A319 and A320) – 15 degrees (A321) of maximum pitch attitude or 22.5 degrees maximum in case of windshear).

When is the autopilot first available for use after takeoff?

At or above 400ft AGL.

At or above 100ft AGL and after 5 seconds.

At or above 150ft AGL.

At or above 240ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

When the aircraft overflies a flight plan discontinuity, the NAV mode automatically reverts to the HDG TRK mode.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

The RWY mode is a managed lateral mode. When a LOC, VOR or SLS signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff only.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

Only when a LOC signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff, AND initial climb. The RWY guidance law aims to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline during the takeoff run. When the aircraft is airborne, the RWY guidance law aims to maintain the sideslip indicator centered. To follow the guidance, the FD displays the conventional guidance bar.

The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

The thrust delivered by A THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

Yes, by setting a higher speed target.

No, because the A THR already delivers the maximum available thrust.

Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.

Correct! Wrong!

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range:

The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA.

The flight controls revert to direct law.

The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.

Correct! Wrong!

What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFDs?

Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.

Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to the IAS Bug if FDs and APs are switched OFF?

Remains in Managed Mode (Magenta) in case managed mode is engaged again.

Reverts to Selected Mode (Blue).

Nothing.

All bugs are lost.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to the RA Indication during a low visibility Approach with DH 50?

It flashes green.

It flashes amber.

It turns green.

It turns amber.

Correct! Wrong!

During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the "Ground Speed Mini". The lowest speed target is limited to:

VAPP and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-5 in CONF FULL.

VAPP+7 and its upper limit is VFE-5 of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-3 in CONF FULL.

VAPP+ 5 kt and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration.

Correct! Wrong!

Ground speed mini concept has been defined to prevent the aircraft energy from dropping below a minimum level during final approach. The GS mini value is not displayed to the flight crew.

What is the pitch mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

ALT.

VS.

OPN CLB.

CLB.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point after a manual go-around can the autopilot be engaged?

Above 100 ft AGL.

Above 300 ft AGL.

Above 160 ft AGL.

Above 250 ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

The autothrust is a function of the:

FACs (Flight Augmentation Computers).

FMGC (Flight Management Guidance Control).

SECs (Spoiler Elevator Computers).

ELACs (ELevator Aileron Computers).

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum VS selectable on the FCU?

Plus or minus 7000 fpm.

Plus or minus 6000 fpm.

Plus or minus 5000 fpm.

Plus or minus 8000 fpm.

Correct! Wrong!

Which baro altimeters are considered usable when both channels of the FCU are lost?

None of the baro references.

The standby altimeter only.

The PFD and standby altimeters

The PFD altimeters only.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?

When AC power is connected.

At first engine start.

When DC power is connected.

At FMGC system power up.

Correct! Wrong!

If the VAPP computed by the FMS is not available, the VAPP is:

VLS + 8 kt.

VLS + 10 kt.

VLS.

VLS + 5 kt.

Correct! Wrong!

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?

FUEL PRED page.

TAKE OFF PERF page.

PROG page.

INIT A page.

Correct! Wrong!

If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

The ADIRU is not energized: AD and IR information is lost.

AD information will be disconnected.

AD and IR information will be disconnected.

IR information will be disconnected.

Correct! Wrong!

What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

Check Effective Date.

Check Data Base Cycle.

Check Data Base Date.

Check Changeover date.

Correct! Wrong!

When is Windshear Protection available, when is it triggered?

Below 1300AGL and Flap 1 or greater.

Below 1500AGL and Flap 2 or greater.

Below 1500AGL and Flap 1 or greater.

Below 1300AGL and Flap 2 or greater.

Correct! Wrong!

FMA Green annunciation - APP NAV and FINAL modes are engaged during a non precision approach.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

When the flaps are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

When the SLATS are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

What happens if the THR LVR ATHR buttons are pushed for more than 15 seconds?

ATHR is lost for the reminder of the flight along with any ATHR associated protections.

ATHR disconnects.

Manual thrust mode is engaged.

ATHR is lost for the reminder of the flight.

Correct! Wrong!

An automatic landing system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the remaining part of the automatic landing system allows the aircraft to complete the approach, flare, and landing.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors are removed automatically when the pitch exceeds:

+25 degrees and -13 degrees.

+28 degrees and -10 degrees.

+25 degrees and -17 degrees.

+20 degrees and -15 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

What does 2FD2 on the PFD mean?

1 is inoperative, 2 is engaged.

1 is the slave, 2 is the master.

1 is off, 2 is engaged.

1 is the master, 2 is the slave.

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors automatically reappear when the bank angle becomes less than:

33 degrees.

37 degrees.

25 degrees.

40 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

What information is supplied by the IRs and displayed on the PFD?

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

Heading, altitude, and vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and altitude.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed possible with ATHR ON?

V alpha Prot.

V alpha MAX.

VAPP.

VLS.

Correct! Wrong!

When the FCU is in Managed mode, how long will a selection in HDG-TRK or VS (without pulling) stay on the FCU before it disappears?

30 seconds.

10 seconds.

45 seconds.

60 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

With the loss of ILS data (GS, LOC, LAND, etc.) how long do the flight directors flash for?

5 seconds.

10 seconds.

7 seconds

Permanently.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point can the autopilot be used until on a CAT1 ILS approach?

160 ft.

250 ft.

500 ft.

100 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

What does -FD2 on the PFD mean?

1 is inoperative, 2 is engaged.

1 is off, 2 is engaged.

1 is the slave, 2 is the master.

1 is the master, 2 is the slave.

Correct! Wrong!

A Managed Descent in a Holding Pattern gives what rate of descent?

500 fpm.

600 fpm.

800 fpm.

1000 fpm.

Correct! Wrong!

When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?

7 seconds.

12 seconds.

5 seconds.

10 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

The A/THR is active when it controls thrust or speed. The position of the thrust lever determines the maximum thrust that the A/THR system can command (except in alpha floor condition).

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

In which case are AP, FD, A/THR and Autoland capabilities lost?

1 ADC (Air data Computer) failure.

2 RA (Radio Altimeters) failures.

2 FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer) failures.

2 IRS or ADC (Air Data Computer) failures.

Correct! Wrong!

The "ON BAT" light will illuminate amber:

Both statements are correct.

For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.

When one or more IRs are operating on aircraft battery power.

Correct! Wrong!

What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped out.

A DMC failure.

An AC power failure.

No power.

Correct! Wrong!

How long does a normal IR alignment take?

Approximately 10 minutes.

Approximately 3 minutes.

Approximately 6 minutes.

Approximately 13 minutes.

Correct! Wrong!

Fast alignment is used to refine a position when time is limited. A fast alignment takes approximately 30 seconds.

If the A/THR disconnect switches are held for more than 15 seconds, the A/THR is disconnected for the reminder of the flight (this includes alpha floor).

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point can the autopilot be used until on an approach using FINAL APP?

500 ft.

250 ft.

100 ft.

160 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

When is ALPHA FLOOR available?

In Normal Law and alternate laws where ATHR is operative.

In Normal law & Alternative laws only.

Always.

In Normal Law with operating autothrust.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum FPA selectable on the FCU?

Plus or minus 4 degrees.

Plus or minus 6.9 degrees.

Plus or minus 4.9 degrees

Plus or minus 9.9 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

How many Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed?

Three.

Two.

One.

Four.

Correct! Wrong!

After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?

No action is needed as recovery is automatic.

Once a DMC has failed the information is unrecoverable

Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC 3.

Correct! Wrong!

How can the FMGC be used to exit a holding pattern?

Activate the HOLD EXIT prompt.

Activate the IMM EXIT prompt.

Using the CLR EXIT prompt.

Hold will automatically cancel overflying the fix.

Correct! Wrong!

If the autothrust has not failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Moving the trust lever to achieve a different N1.

Pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU.

Engaging the other autopilot.

Pressing the autothrust disconnect pb.

Correct! Wrong!

SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the roll mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

RWY.

HDG.

NAV.

NAV or TRK.

Correct! Wrong!

What does a Temporary white Box indicate on an FMA?

Mode reversion.

Aircraft cannot meet the requirements of that mode.

Armed mode.

Recently changed mode.

Correct! Wrong!

What will happen if V2 is not inserted into the PERF TAKEOFF page?

The aircraft will target the speed achieved at lift off.

No FMA will display in column 2.

VS mode engages 5 seconds after lift-off.

SRS will still engage when FLEX/TOGA is selected.

Correct! Wrong!

What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.

The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard.

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the main SRS (Speed Reference System) purpose?

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+10 (2 engines) or V2+15 maximum (1 engine).

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+15 (2 engines) or V2 maximum (1 engine).

It provides instructions to the flight director computers.

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+5 (2 engines) or V2 maximum (1 engine).

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS mode controls pitch to steer the aircraft along a path in the vertical plan at a speed defined by the SRS guidance law. In SRS mode, the aircraft maintains a speed target equal to V2+10 kt in normal engine configuration. When the FMGS detects an engine failure, the speed target becomes the highest of V2 or current speed, limited by V2+15 kt.

Losing both channels of the FCU will result in losing:

The autothrust only.

The flight directors and autothrust.

The flight directors only.

The flight directors, autothrust and autopilots.

Correct! Wrong!

When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?

10ft, 30ft.

10ft, 40ft.

10ft, 20ft.

20ft, 10ft.

Correct! Wrong!

FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

A white box is displayed for 10 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 15 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

If the ATHR is switched off on the Instinctive disconnect pb:

ENG THR matches the current THR LVR position at the point of disconnect.

THR LOCK until the flight crew sets desired manual thrust.

Manual thrust mode is engaged.

Nothing.

Correct! Wrong!

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.

The OFF light will illuminate, and air data output will disconnect.

All statements are correct.

The respective ADIRU will become de-energized.

Correct! Wrong!

With the A/THR engaged, it is possible to achieve more thrust than MAX CLB thrust.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What input on the PERF APPROACH page on the FMGC is required for ground speed mini to operate?

TEMP.

BARO.

MAG WIND.

QNH.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed selectable on the FCU?

0 kt.

Alpha Prot.

100 kt.

VLS.

Correct! Wrong!

How can be defined a GA TRK?

It guides the aircraft along the current track at go-around initiation.

It guides the aircraft along a wind adjusted HDG for a given RWY TRK on go-around.

Entirely the same as TRK, although only displays on a go-around.

It guides the aircraft along a TRK set in the FCU at go-around.

Correct! Wrong!

What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

FMGC position and IR position difference exceeds limits.

FMGC position and actual radio position difference exceeds limits.

FMGC 1 and 2 position difference exceeds limits.

Correct! Wrong!

If accuracy is "LOW" (and whenever "NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD" appears), the flight crew should compare raw data from the tuned navaids with the corresponding FM computed data on the ND or the MCDU PROG page

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.

Present position needs to be reentered.

A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.

Correct! Wrong!

What action should be taken if ADR 1 is lost?

Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Nothing.

Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Correct! Wrong!

If during takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an altitude on the FCU below the current altitude, the aircraft will remain in SRS mode until the flight crew takes some other action.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

In approach with FINAL APP, VS or FPA mode, the autopilot can be used until:

180 ft AGL.

250 ft AGL.

300 ft AGL.

200 ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop

1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.

Correct! Wrong!

Normally FMGC1 is the source for the left side and FMGC2 for the right side. If both FMGCs are functional and FDs are on then 1FD2 should be displayed. If one FMGC fails then the other one becomes the source for both FDs: if FMGC1 is inoperative then the display would be 2FD2 which means FMGC2 is the source for both FDs. If right FD is switched off then the display would be 2FD-

On ground the flight crew arms A/THR by pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the engines are not running, or by setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens on the PFD Altitude Tape when the Aircraft descends below MDA?

Altitude box flashes.

Altitude numbers turn amber.

Altitude numbers turn red.

Altitude box turns amber.

Correct! Wrong!

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode automatically disengages at EO ACC ALT.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode does NOT automatically disengage at EO ACC ALT.

The flight directors are removed automatically when the bank angle exceeds:

45 degrees.

58 degrees.

40 degrees.

67 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

When does "LAND" appear on the FMA?

LOC Arm.

LOC and G/S Arm less than 400 RA.

LOC and G/S Arm.

GS Arm less than 400 RA.

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.

Correct! Wrong!

If hand flown to VLS or VMAX with the autothrust engaged, which mode will it automatically revert to?

THR CLB.

THR LK.

SPEED.

MAN TOGA.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens when the autothrust system fails?

Both autopilot and autothrust disconnect.

CLB thrust is commanded and the autothrust disconnects.

THR LK appears in column 1 of the FMA.

TOGA LK appears in column 1 of the FMA.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the effect of activating the Approach Phase on the MCDU?

LS automatically switches on should you be conducting an ILS approach.

Aircraft will slow to the next flap limiting speed and the speed bug matches to the new target.

Aircraft will slow to the next flap limiting speed and the speed bug drops to Vapp.

Aircraft will slow to the green dot speed.

Correct! Wrong!

What causes the flight directors to flash on the PFD?

When a mode reversion occurs or loss of ILS data.

When a mode reversion occurs or alpha floor engages.

When a mode reversion occurs.

Alpha floor engages.

Correct! Wrong!

How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

Both statements are correct.

Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU.

Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.

Correct! Wrong!

When is the Yaw bar displayed?

Below 30 ft RA.

On the ground, or below 30 ft RA.

On the ground.

On the ground and below 50 ft RA.

Correct! Wrong!

VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system will fly the aircraft and is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). What else is true about VLS?

Above FL200, VLS will provide a 0.2g buffet margin.

All statements are correct.

VLS will change with wing configuration change.

With speedbrake extension, VLS will increase.

Correct! Wrong!

The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON. An alignment fault may exist.

Attitude and heading information have been lost. An alignment fault may exist.

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON.

Correct! Wrong!

The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:

Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands

Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions

Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.

AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation.

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS mode engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent, providing:

V2 is available, the flaps and slats are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 60 seconds.

V2 is available, the flaps are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 60 seconds.

V2 has been inserted in the MCDU PERF TAKEOFF page, the slats are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 30 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMA displays the DECELERATE special message. What does it mean?

The thrust must be reduced to achieve a proper deceleration before a speed constraint.

The speed target must be reduced to achieve the flight profile.

The thrust is not reduced when passing the Top of Descent, and the aircraft is above the flight profile.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMGS synchronizes A/THR mode, AP/FD modes and approach capability to provide identical information on both PFDs.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

In HDG TRK mode, a flight plan waypoint is sequenced if the waypoint is behind the aircraft and the aircraft is less than 7 NM from it, if the angle between the current aircraft track and the track of the leg is less than 90 degrees, and if the aircraft is flying a discontinuity towards a waypoint. This waypoint is sequenced when the aircraft is less than _____ from it.

5 NM.

2.5 NM.

7 NM.

Correct! Wrong!

The same conditions apply in NAV mode, except that no distance to the waypoint is taken into account.

The FMA displays the CHECK SPEED MODE special message. What does it mean?

The SPEED target, as selected, is invalid or the flight crew did not enter any speed target in the PERF CLB page.

The speed target is not selected.

The SPEED target is selected and the flight crew did not enter a speed target in the PERF CLB page, or a speed-Mach target in the PERF DES page.

Correct! Wrong!

With the ATHR Active, the actual thrust is primarily limited by:

MCT - TOGA.

The thrust setting associated with the position of the thrust lever.

Cost Index constraints.

Flight plan constraints.

Correct! Wrong!

The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI. ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 2.

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 1.

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 2 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 1 and ND 1.

Correct! Wrong!

What action should be taken if IR 2 is lost?

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.

Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

Correct! Wrong!

The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform:

Three main functions - Yaw function, flight envelope function, and low energy aural alert function.

Two main functions - Yaw function and flight envelope function.

Four main functions - Yaw function, flight envelope function, low energy aural alert function and windshear detection function.

Correct! Wrong!

If a failure is detected on any channel of FAC1, FAC2 takes over the corresponding channel.

When alpha floor protection is triggered it automatically commands TOGA thrust on both engines, regardless of the position of the thrust levers.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

Alpha Floor Protection is available from lift-off until the aircraft reaches 100 feet RA on the approach to landing.

SRS provides the correct pitch attitude for:

The desired climb speed.

The best combination of rate of climb and desired airspeed.

The desired rate of climb.

The desired airspeed.

Correct! Wrong!

The engagement of both autopilots is possible.

When the Approach Phase is activated.

When LOC and GS modes are armed.

When LAND mode engages.

At all times.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum speed selectable on the FCU?

500 kt.

499 kt.

450 kt.

399 kt.

Correct! Wrong!

The ground speed mini function works in both managed and selected speed modes.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

The Ground Speed Mini function is active when the speed is managed and the FMS flight phase is the approach phase.

On the ground with both flight directors engaged, when will the autothrust arm?

When FLEX or TOGA is selected.

On first engine start.

When the takeoff config switch is pressed.

As soon as the flight directors are engaged.

Correct! Wrong!

If the autothrust has failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Moving the trust lever to achieve a different N1.

Pressing the autothrust disconnect pb.

Engaging the other autopilot.

Pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU.

Correct! Wrong!

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

ALPHA SPD (alpha speed)

VLS.

Alpha floor.

Pitch attitude.

Correct! Wrong!

During the takeoff phase:

SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected.

SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft.

SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference.

Correct! Wrong!

What is Displayed in the top center of the ND?

The active approach.

Active Nav Aids.

HDG Indication.

The runway of the selected approach in the MCDU.

Correct! Wrong!

An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition, or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. What approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system?

CAT 3 SINGLE and CAT2.

CAT 2 and CAT 1.

CAT 3 SINGLE, CAT2 and CAT1.

Correct! Wrong!

In the Armed mode, the actual thrust is equal to:

MCT / TOGA.

Cost Index constraints.

The THR setting in use, i.e. TOGA will equal TOGA thrust.

The thrust setting associated with the position of THR LVR.

Correct! Wrong!

Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

Yes.

No.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to ATHR if the thrust levers are moved to idle?

ATHR Disconnects.

AP Disconnects.

LEVER CLB appears on the PFD reminding the pilots of an incorrect THR LVR position.

ATHR demands IDLE Thrust.

Correct! Wrong!

Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight

Quiz

Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight

In the CLB detent, with ATHR on, what happens if the thrust levers are moved forward of the CLB detent?

VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the managed speed target will still be computed.

What navigation display (ND) setting is automatically displayed when both channels of the FCU are lost?

Regarding metric altitudes, which of the following statements is true?

A THR in white means that A THR is:

When the A/THR is armed the FCU’s A/THR pb light comes on and A/THR is displayed in white on the FMA.

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

The DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator) provides the flight crew with:

The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.

When is the autopilot first available for use after takeoff?

When the aircraft overflies a flight plan discontinuity, the NAV mode automatically reverts to the HDG TRK mode.

The RWY mode is a managed lateral mode. When a LOC, VOR or SLS signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff only.

The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.

The thrust delivered by A THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range:

What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFDs?

What happens to the IAS Bug if FDs and APs are switched OFF?

What happens to the RA Indication during a low visibility Approach with DH 50?

During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the "Ground Speed Mini". The lowest speed target is limited to:

What is the pitch mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

At what point after a manual go-around can the autopilot be engaged?

The autothrust is a function of the:

What is the maximum VS selectable on the FCU?

Which baro altimeters are considered usable when both channels of the FCU are lost?

At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?

If the VAPP computed by the FMS is not available, the VAPP is:

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?

If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

When is Windshear Protection available, when is it triggered?

FMA Green annunciation - APP NAV and FINAL modes are engaged during a non precision approach.

When the flaps are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

What happens if the THR LVR ATHR buttons are pushed for more than 15 seconds?

An automatic landing system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the remaining part of the automatic landing system allows the aircraft to complete the approach, flare, and landing.

The flight directors are removed automatically when the pitch exceeds:

What does 2FD2 on the PFD mean?

The flight directors automatically reappear when the bank angle becomes less than:

What information is supplied by the IRs and displayed on the PFD?

What is the minimum speed possible with ATHR ON?

When the FCU is in Managed mode, how long will a selection in HDG-TRK or VS (without pulling) stay on the FCU before it disappears?

With the loss of ILS data (GS, LOC, LAND, etc.) how long do the flight directors flash for?

At what point can the autopilot be used until on a CAT1 ILS approach?

What does -FD2 on the PFD mean?

A Managed Descent in a Holding Pattern gives what rate of descent?

When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?

The A/THR is active when it controls thrust or speed. The position of the thrust lever determines the maximum thrust that the A/THR system can command (except in alpha floor condition).

In which case are AP, FD, A/THR and Autoland capabilities lost?

The "ON BAT" light will illuminate amber:

What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

How long does a normal IR alignment take?

If the A/THR disconnect switches are held for more than 15 seconds, the A/THR is disconnected for the reminder of the flight (this includes alpha floor).

At what point can the autopilot be used until on an approach using FINAL APP?

When is ALPHA FLOOR available?

What is the maximum FPA selectable on the FCU?

How many Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed?

After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?

How can the FMGC be used to exit a holding pattern?

If the autothrust has not failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.

What is the roll mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

What does a Temporary white Box indicate on an FMA?

What will happen if V2 is not inserted into the PERF TAKEOFF page?

What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

What is the main SRS (Speed Reference System) purpose?

Losing both channels of the FCU will result in losing:

When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?

FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

If the ATHR is switched off on the Instinctive disconnect pb:

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

With the A/THR engaged, it is possible to achieve more thrust than MAX CLB thrust.

What input on the PERF APPROACH page on the FMGC is required for ground speed mini to operate?

What is the minimum speed selectable on the FCU?

How can be defined a GA TRK?

What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

What action should be taken if ADR 1 is lost?

If during takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an altitude on the FCU below the current altitude, the aircraft will remain in SRS mode until the flight crew takes some other action.

In approach with FINAL APP, VS or FPA mode, the autopilot can be used until: