Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight

During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the "Ground Speed Mini". The lowest speed target is limited to:

VAPP and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-5 in CONF FULL.

VAPP+ 5 kt and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration.

VAPP+7 and its upper limit is VFE-5 of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-3 in CONF FULL.

Correct! Wrong!

Ground speed mini concept has been defined to prevent the aircraft energy from dropping below a minimum level during final approach. The GS mini value is not displayed to the flight crew.

With the loss of ILS data (GS, LOC, LAND, etc.) how long do the flight directors flash for?

7 seconds

Permanently.

5 seconds.

10 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?

10 seconds.

7 seconds.

5 seconds.

12 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to the IAS Bug if FDs and APs are switched OFF?

Nothing.

Remains in Managed Mode (Magenta) in case managed mode is engaged again.

All bugs are lost.

Reverts to Selected Mode (Blue).

Correct! Wrong!

What causes the flight directors to flash on the PFD?

When a mode reversion occurs.

Alpha floor engages.

When a mode reversion occurs or alpha floor engages.

When a mode reversion occurs or loss of ILS data.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens if the THR LVR ATHR buttons are pushed for more than 15 seconds?

ATHR disconnects.

ATHR is lost for the reminder of the flight along with any ATHR associated protections.

ATHR is lost for the reminder of the flight.

Manual thrust mode is engaged.

Correct! Wrong!

What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFDs?

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.

Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and vertical speed.

Correct! Wrong!

The ground speed mini function works in both managed and selected speed modes.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

The Ground Speed Mini function is active when the speed is managed and the FMS flight phase is the approach phase.

If during takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an altitude on the FCU below the current altitude, the aircraft will remain in SRS mode until the flight crew takes some other action.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

Check Data Base Date.

Check Data Base Cycle.

Check Changeover date.

Check Effective Date.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to the RA Indication during a low visibility Approach with DH 50?

It flashes green.

It flashes amber.

It turns amber.

It turns green.

Correct! Wrong!

When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?

10ft, 20ft.

10ft, 30ft.

10ft, 40ft.

20ft, 10ft.

Correct! Wrong!

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range:

The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA.

The flight controls revert to direct law.

The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop

1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.

Correct! Wrong!

Normally FMGC1 is the source for the left side and FMGC2 for the right side. If both FMGCs are functional and FDs are on then 1FD2 should be displayed. If one FMGC fails then the other one becomes the source for both FDs: if FMGC1 is inoperative then the display would be 2FD2 which means FMGC2 is the source for both FDs. If right FD is switched off then the display would be 2FD-

The flight directors are removed automatically when the pitch exceeds:

+28 degrees and -10 degrees.

+25 degrees and -13 degrees.

+25 degrees and -17 degrees.

+20 degrees and -15 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

Both statements are correct.

Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU.

Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.

Correct! Wrong!

When does "LAND" appear on the FMA?

LOC and G/S Arm.

LOC and G/S Arm less than 400 RA.

LOC Arm.

GS Arm less than 400 RA.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum VS selectable on the FCU?

Plus or minus 6000 fpm.

Plus or minus 8000 fpm.

Plus or minus 5000 fpm.

Plus or minus 7000 fpm.

Correct! Wrong!

The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform:

Three main functions - Yaw function, flight envelope function, and low energy aural alert function.

Two main functions - Yaw function and flight envelope function.

Four main functions - Yaw function, flight envelope function, low energy aural alert function and windshear detection function.

Correct! Wrong!

If a failure is detected on any channel of FAC1, FAC2 takes over the corresponding channel.

The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What will happen if V2 is not inserted into the PERF TAKEOFF page?

VS mode engages 5 seconds after lift-off.

SRS will still engage when FLEX/TOGA is selected.

No FMA will display in column 2.

The aircraft will target the speed achieved at lift off.

Correct! Wrong!

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?

FUEL PRED page.

PROG page.

TAKE OFF PERF page.

INIT A page.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens to ATHR if the thrust levers are moved to idle?

ATHR Disconnects.

LEVER CLB appears on the PFD reminding the pilots of an incorrect THR LVR position.

AP Disconnects.

ATHR demands IDLE Thrust.

Correct! Wrong!

A Managed Descent in a Holding Pattern gives what rate of descent?

600 fpm.

1000 fpm.

500 fpm.

800 fpm.

Correct! Wrong!

The "ON BAT" light will illuminate amber:

For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.

Both statements are correct.

When one or more IRs are operating on aircraft battery power.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the pitch mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

ALT.

VS.

CLB.

OPN CLB.

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

There is a pitch angle protection to reduce the aircraft nose-up: 18 degrees (A319 and A320) – 15 degrees (A321) of maximum pitch attitude or 22.5 degrees maximum in case of windshear).

The RWY mode is a managed lateral mode. When a LOC, VOR or SLS signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff only.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

Only when a LOC signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff, AND initial climb. The RWY guidance law aims to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline during the takeoff run. When the aircraft is airborne, the RWY guidance law aims to maintain the sideslip indicator centered. To follow the guidance, the FD displays the conventional guidance bar.

If the ATHR is switched off on the Instinctive disconnect pb:

ENG THR matches the current THR LVR position at the point of disconnect.

Manual thrust mode is engaged.

Nothing.

THR LOCK until the flight crew sets desired manual thrust.

Correct! Wrong!

Losing both channels of the FCU will result in losing:

The autothrust only.

The flight directors only.

The flight directors and autothrust.

The flight directors, autothrust and autopilots.

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors are removed automatically when the bank angle exceeds:

67 degrees.

40 degrees.

45 degrees.

58 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

In approach with FINAL APP, VS or FPA mode, the autopilot can be used until:

300 ft AGL.

250 ft AGL.

180 ft AGL.

200 ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

In the Armed mode, the actual thrust is equal to:

MCT / TOGA.

Cost Index constraints.

The THR setting in use, i.e. TOGA will equal TOGA thrust.

The thrust setting associated with the position of THR LVR.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the effect of activating the Approach Phase on the MCDU?

Aircraft will slow to the next flap limiting speed and the speed bug matches to the new target.

Aircraft will slow to the green dot speed.

LS automatically switches on should you be conducting an ILS approach.

Aircraft will slow to the next flap limiting speed and the speed bug drops to Vapp.

Correct! Wrong!

Regarding metric altitudes, which of the following statements is true?

The metric altitude display on the ECAM shows the actual aircraft altitude.

The metric altitude display on the ECAM is driven by the FCU ALT knob.

Pressing the metric altitudes pb changes the FCU (only) indication to meters.

Pressing the metric altitude pb changes the FCU and the PFD display to meters.

Correct! Wrong!

Which baro altimeters are considered usable when both channels of the FCU are lost?

The PFD and standby altimeters

The standby altimeter only.

None of the baro references.

The PFD altimeters only.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the roll mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

NAV or TRK.

NAV.

HDG.

RWY.

Correct! Wrong!

If the VAPP computed by the FMS is not available, the VAPP is:

VLS + 5 kt.

VLS.

VLS + 10 kt.

VLS + 8 kt.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point can the autopilot be used until on a CAT1 ILS approach?

100 ft.

160 ft.

500 ft.

250 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

During the takeoff phase:

SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft.

SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected.

SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference.

Correct! Wrong!

When is the autopilot first available for use after takeoff?

At or above 240ft AGL.

At or above 400ft AGL.

At or above 100ft AGL and after 5 seconds.

At or above 150ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMA displays the CHECK SPEED MODE special message. What does it mean?

The SPEED target is selected and the flight crew did not enter a speed target in the PERF CLB page, or a speed-Mach target in the PERF DES page.

The speed target is not selected.

The SPEED target, as selected, is invalid or the flight crew did not enter any speed target in the PERF CLB page.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point after a manual go-around can the autopilot be engaged?

Above 100 ft AGL.

Above 250 ft AGL.

Above 160 ft AGL.

Above 300 ft AGL.

Correct! Wrong!

If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

AD information will be disconnected.

AD and IR information will be disconnected.

IR information will be disconnected.

The ADIRU is not energized: AD and IR information is lost.

Correct! Wrong!

How can be defined a GA TRK?

It guides the aircraft along the current track at go-around initiation.

It guides the aircraft along a TRK set in the FCU at go-around.

It guides the aircraft along a wind adjusted HDG for a given RWY TRK on go-around.

Entirely the same as TRK, although only displays on a go-around.

Correct! Wrong!

SRS provides the correct pitch attitude for:

The best combination of rate of climb and desired airspeed.

The desired rate of climb.

The desired climb speed.

The desired airspeed.

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.

Correct! Wrong!

FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

A white box is displayed for 10 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 15 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

The engagement of both autopilots is possible.

When LOC and GS modes are armed.

At all times.

When the Approach Phase is activated.

When LAND mode engages.

Correct! Wrong!

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

Air data output has been disconnected.

The respective IR is operating normally.

Alignment has been completed.

Correct! Wrong!

VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the managed speed target will still be computed.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system will fly the aircraft and is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). What else is true about VLS?

All statements are correct.

VLS will change with wing configuration change.

With speedbrake extension, VLS will increase.

Above FL200, VLS will provide a 0.2g buffet margin.

Correct! Wrong!

SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point can the autopilot be used until on an approach using FINAL APP?

250 ft.

100 ft.

500 ft.

160 ft.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the main SRS (Speed Reference System) purpose?

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+10 (2 engines) or V2+15 maximum (1 engine).

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+5 (2 engines) or V2 maximum (1 engine).

It provides instructions to the flight director computers.

It guides aircraft pitch to maintain V2+15 (2 engines) or V2 maximum (1 engine).

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS mode controls pitch to steer the aircraft along a path in the vertical plan at a speed defined by the SRS guidance law. In SRS mode, the aircraft maintains a speed target equal to V2+10 kt in normal engine configuration. When the FMGS detects an engine failure, the speed target becomes the highest of V2 or current speed, limited by V2+15 kt.

If the autothrust has failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU.

Engaging the other autopilot.

Pressing the autothrust disconnect pb.

Moving the trust lever to achieve a different N1.

Correct! Wrong!

The DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator) provides the flight crew with:

Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.

Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.

Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.

Bearing only for VOR 1.

Correct! Wrong!

An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition, or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. What approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system?

CAT 2 and CAT 1.

CAT 3 SINGLE, CAT2 and CAT1.

CAT 3 SINGLE and CAT2.

Correct! Wrong!

What input on the PERF APPROACH page on the FMGC is required for ground speed mini to operate?

BARO.

QNH.

TEMP.

MAG WIND.

Correct! Wrong!

Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

No.

Yes.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed possible with ATHR ON?

VAPP.

VLS.

V alpha Prot.

V alpha MAX.

Correct! Wrong!

On the ground with both flight directors engaged, when will the autothrust arm?

On first engine start.

As soon as the flight directors are engaged.

When the takeoff config switch is pressed.

When FLEX or TOGA is selected.

Correct! Wrong!

What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

A DMC failure.

No power.

An AC power failure.

The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped out.

Correct! Wrong!

How can the FMGC be used to exit a holding pattern?

Activate the HOLD EXIT prompt.

Activate the IMM EXIT prompt.

Hold will automatically cancel overflying the fix.

Using the CLR EXIT prompt.

Correct! Wrong!

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.

A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.

Present position needs to be reentered.

Correct! Wrong!

When is Windshear Protection available, when is it triggered?

Below 1500AGL and Flap 2 or greater.

Below 1300AGL and Flap 1 or greater.

Below 1500AGL and Flap 1 or greater.

Below 1300AGL and Flap 2 or greater.

Correct! Wrong!

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

Pitch attitude.

VLS.

Alpha floor.

ALPHA SPD (alpha speed)

Correct! Wrong!

The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI. ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 2.

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 2 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 1 and ND 1.

ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 1.

Correct! Wrong!

What does -FD2 on the PFD mean?

1 is off, 2 is engaged.

1 is inoperative, 2 is engaged.

1 is the slave, 2 is the master.

1 is the master, 2 is the slave.

Correct! Wrong!

At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?

At first engine start.

At FMGC system power up.

When AC power is connected.

When DC power is connected.

Correct! Wrong!

A THR in white means that A THR is:

Active.

Disconnected.

Armed.

Correct! Wrong!

In HDG TRK mode, a flight plan waypoint is sequenced if the waypoint is behind the aircraft and the aircraft is less than 7 NM from it, if the angle between the current aircraft track and the track of the leg is less than 90 degrees, and if the aircraft is flying a discontinuity towards a waypoint. This waypoint is sequenced when the aircraft is less than _____ from it.

5 NM.

2.5 NM.

7 NM.

Correct! Wrong!

The same conditions apply in NAV mode, except that no distance to the waypoint is taken into account.

When is ALPHA FLOOR available?

In Normal Law with operating autothrust.

In Normal Law and alternate laws where ATHR is operative.

In Normal law & Alternative laws only.

Always.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum speed selectable on the FCU?

499 kt.

450 kt.

399 kt.

500 kt.

Correct! Wrong!

The SRS mode engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent, providing:

V2 is available, the flaps are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 60 seconds.

V2 is available, the flaps and slats are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 60 seconds.

V2 has been inserted in the MCDU PERF TAKEOFF page, the slats are extended, and the aircraft has been on ground for at least 30 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

All statements are correct.

The OFF light will illuminate, and air data output will disconnect.

The respective ADIRU will become de-energized.

Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.

Correct! Wrong!

If the A/THR disconnect switches are held for more than 15 seconds, the A/THR is disconnected for the reminder of the flight (this includes alpha floor).

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What does a Temporary white Box indicate on an FMA?

Mode reversion.

Armed mode.

Recently changed mode.

Aircraft cannot meet the requirements of that mode.

Correct! Wrong!

What is Displayed in the top center of the ND?

HDG Indication.

Active Nav Aids.

The runway of the selected approach in the MCDU.

The active approach.

Correct! Wrong!

When the aircraft overflies a flight plan discontinuity, the NAV mode automatically reverts to the HDG TRK mode.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

How long does a normal IR alignment take?

Approximately 10 minutes.

Approximately 6 minutes.

Approximately 13 minutes.

Approximately 3 minutes.

Correct! Wrong!

Fast alignment is used to refine a position when time is limited. A fast alignment takes approximately 30 seconds.

In the CLB detent, with ATHR on, what happens if the thrust levers are moved forward of the CLB detent?

ATHR disconnects.

TOGA FLEX then becomes the upper band of the ATHR speed range

AP disconnects.

Autothrottle returns to an ARMED state, with TOGA FLEX shown in a whitebox.

Correct! Wrong!

The flight directors automatically reappear when the bank angle becomes less than:

37 degrees.

25 degrees.

33 degrees.

40 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMA displays the DECELERATE special message. What does it mean?

The thrust is not reduced when passing the Top of Descent, and the aircraft is above the flight profile.

The speed target must be reduced to achieve the flight profile.

The thrust must be reduced to achieve a proper deceleration before a speed constraint.

Correct! Wrong!

When is the Yaw bar displayed?

On the ground.

On the ground and below 50 ft RA.

On the ground, or below 30 ft RA.

Below 30 ft RA.

Correct! Wrong!

The FMGS synchronizes A/THR mode, AP/FD modes and approach capability to provide identical information on both PFDs.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

In which case are AP, FD, A/THR and Autoland capabilities lost?

2 FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer) failures.

2 RA (Radio Altimeters) failures.

2 IRS or ADC (Air Data Computer) failures.

1 ADC (Air data Computer) failure.

Correct! Wrong!

The thrust delivered by A THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

No, because the A THR already delivers the maximum available thrust.

Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.

Yes, by setting a higher speed target.

Correct! Wrong!

After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?

Once a DMC has failed the information is unrecoverable

No action is needed as recovery is automatic.

Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC 3.

Correct! Wrong!

The autothrust is a function of the:

ELACs (ELevator Aileron Computers).

FMGC (Flight Management Guidance Control).

FACs (Flight Augmentation Computers).

SECs (Spoiler Elevator Computers).

Correct! Wrong!

What does 2FD2 on the PFD mean?

1 is the slave, 2 is the master.

1 is off, 2 is engaged.

1 is the master, 2 is the slave.

1 is inoperative, 2 is engaged.

Correct! Wrong!

When the flaps are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

When the SLATS are extended, the FACs automatically set the rudder deflection limit at the low-speed setting (maximum authorized deflection).

The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?

Attitude and heading information have been lost. An alignment fault may exist.

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON. An alignment fault may exist.

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON.

Correct! Wrong!

If the autothrust has not failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

Pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU.

Moving the trust lever to achieve a different N1.

Pressing the autothrust disconnect pb.

Engaging the other autopilot.

Correct! Wrong!

On ground the flight crew arms A/THR by pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the engines are not running, or by setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What navigation display (ND) setting is automatically displayed when both channels of the FCU are lost?

ARC 80 NM.

ARC 160 NM.

The current display setting at the time of the failure.

ROSE NAV 80 NM.

Correct! Wrong!

What action should be taken if IR 2 is lost?

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.

Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

Correct! Wrong!

What information is supplied by the IRs and displayed on the PFD?

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

Heading, altitude, and vertical speed.

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and altitude.

Correct! Wrong!

The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:

Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.

Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands

Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions

AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens on the PFD Altitude Tape when the Aircraft descends below MDA?

Altitude box flashes.

Altitude numbers turn amber.

Altitude box turns amber.

Altitude numbers turn red.

Correct! Wrong!

What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.

The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.

The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the minimum speed selectable on the FCU?

Alpha Prot.

100 kt.

0 kt.

VLS.

Correct! Wrong!

When the FCU is in Managed mode, how long will a selection in HDG-TRK or VS (without pulling) stay on the FCU before it disappears?

45 seconds.

60 seconds.

30 seconds.

10 seconds.

Correct! Wrong!

When the A/THR is armed the FCU’s A/THR pb light comes on and A/THR is displayed in white on the FMA.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

A/THR is displayed in blue on the FMA (not in white).

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode automatically disengages at EO ACC ALT.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode does NOT automatically disengage at EO ACC ALT.

An automatic landing system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the remaining part of the automatic landing system allows the aircraft to complete the approach, flare, and landing.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

What happens when the autothrust system fails?

TOGA LK appears in column 1 of the FMA.

CLB thrust is commanded and the autothrust disconnects.

THR LK appears in column 1 of the FMA.

Both autopilot and autothrust disconnect.

Correct! Wrong!

With the A/THR engaged, it is possible to achieve more thrust than MAX CLB thrust.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the maximum FPA selectable on the FCU?

Plus or minus 4 degrees.

Plus or minus 4.9 degrees

Plus or minus 9.9 degrees.

Plus or minus 6.9 degrees.

Correct! Wrong!

If hand flown to VLS or VMAX with the autothrust engaged, which mode will it automatically revert to?

SPEED.

MAN TOGA.

THR CLB.

THR LK.

Correct! Wrong!

What action should be taken if ADR 1 is lost?

Nothing.

Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Correct! Wrong!

The A/THR is active when it controls thrust or speed. The position of the thrust lever determines the maximum thrust that the A/THR system can command (except in alpha floor condition).

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

FMGC 1 and 2 position difference exceeds limits.

FMGC position and actual radio position difference exceeds limits.

FMGC position and IR position difference exceeds limits.

Correct! Wrong!

If accuracy is "LOW" (and whenever "NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD" appears), the flight crew should compare raw data from the tuned navaids with the corresponding FM computed data on the ND or the MCDU PROG page

When alpha floor protection is triggered it automatically commands TOGA thrust on both engines, regardless of the position of the thrust levers.

False.

True.

Correct! Wrong!

Alpha Floor Protection is available from lift-off until the aircraft reaches 100 feet RA on the approach to landing.

FMA Green annunciation - APP NAV and FINAL modes are engaged during a non precision approach.

True.

False.

Correct! Wrong!

With the ATHR Active, the actual thrust is primarily limited by:

The thrust setting associated with the position of the thrust lever.

Flight plan constraints.

MCT - TOGA.

Cost Index constraints.

Correct! Wrong!

How many Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed?

One.

Four.

Three.

Two.

Correct! Wrong!

Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight

Quiz

Airbus A320 - Automatic Flight

During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the "Ground Speed Mini". The lowest speed target is limited to:

With the loss of ILS data (GS, LOC, LAND, etc.) how long do the flight directors flash for?

When a mode reversion occurs, how long do the flight directors flash for?

What happens to the IAS Bug if FDs and APs are switched OFF?

What causes the flight directors to flash on the PFD?

What happens if the THR LVR ATHR buttons are pushed for more than 15 seconds?

What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFDs?

The ground speed mini function works in both managed and selected speed modes.

If during takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an altitude on the FCU below the current altitude, the aircraft will remain in SRS mode until the flight crew takes some other action.

What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

What happens to the RA Indication during a low visibility Approach with DH 50?

When is RETARD heard on Autoland and Manual Landings?

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range:

What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

The flight directors are removed automatically when the pitch exceeds:

How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

When does "LAND" appear on the FMA?

What is the maximum VS selectable on the FCU?

The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform:

The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.

What will happen if V2 is not inserted into the PERF TAKEOFF page?

With the engines running, a CHECK GW message appears. The FMGC INIT B page is now unavailable. On which page can the Gross Weight be inserted?

What happens to ATHR if the thrust levers are moved to idle?

A Managed Descent in a Holding Pattern gives what rate of descent?

The "ON BAT" light will illuminate amber:

What is the pitch mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

The SRS guidance law includes an attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff.

The RWY mode is a managed lateral mode. When a LOC, VOR or SLS signal is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff only.

If the ATHR is switched off on the Instinctive disconnect pb:

Losing both channels of the FCU will result in losing:

The flight directors are removed automatically when the bank angle exceeds:

In approach with FINAL APP, VS or FPA mode, the autopilot can be used until:

In the Armed mode, the actual thrust is equal to:

What is the effect of activating the Approach Phase on the MCDU?

Regarding metric altitudes, which of the following statements is true?

Which baro altimeters are considered usable when both channels of the FCU are lost?

What is the roll mode reversion when the flight directors begin to flash?

If the VAPP computed by the FMS is not available, the VAPP is:

At what point can the autopilot be used until on a CAT1 ILS approach?

During the takeoff phase:

When is the autopilot first available for use after takeoff?

The FMA displays the CHECK SPEED MODE special message. What does it mean?

At what point after a manual go-around can the autopilot be engaged?

If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

How can be defined a GA TRK?

SRS provides the correct pitch attitude for:

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) - A white box is displayed for 5 seconds around each new annunciation. The white box display time may be increased to 10 seconds in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

The engagement of both autopilots is possible.

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the managed speed target will still be computed.

VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system will fly the aircraft and is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). What else is true about VLS?

SRS mode remains engaged until CLB mode is engaged, which occurs at ACCEL ALT or at any other vertical mode engagement, whichever comes first.

At what point can the autopilot be used until on an approach using FINAL APP?

What is the main SRS (Speed Reference System) purpose?

If the autothrust has failed, how can THR LK be removed from the FMA?

The DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator) provides the flight crew with:

An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition, or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. What approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system?

What input on the PERF APPROACH page on the FMGC is required for ground speed mini to operate?

Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

What is the minimum speed possible with ATHR ON?

On the ground with both flight directors engaged, when will the autothrust arm?

What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

How can the FMGC be used to exit a holding pattern?

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

When is Windshear Protection available, when is it triggered?

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:

What does -FD2 on the PFD mean?

At what point are the flight directors normally automatically engaged?

A THR in white means that A THR is:

When is ALPHA FLOOR available?

What is the maximum speed selectable on the FCU?

The SRS mode engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent, providing:

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

If the A/THR disconnect switches are held for more than 15 seconds, the A/THR is disconnected for the reminder of the flight (this includes alpha floor).

What does a Temporary white Box indicate on an FMA?

What is Displayed in the top center of the ND?